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Who Imputes Righteousness? -
June 8th, 2012, 11:09 PM
I'm seeking some answers as to why in the doctrine of Justification, where it states, our sin is imputed to Christ, where in scripture does it say Christ imputes His Righteousness to us?
Before you get too confused by my intentions from that question. I need to state, that from scripture I still believe in Righteousness imputed from God as a result of, faith in, and through Christ.
Though the scriptures I know of don't explicitly say the Righteousness comes from Christ, but most do say it comes from God. Such as in,
Romans 1:17
For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith for faith, as it is written, “The righteous shall live by faith.”
Romans 3:21-22
But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it— the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction:
2 Corinthians 5:21
For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
Philippians 3:9
and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God that depends on faith—
It clearly says Righteousness comes from/is of God, through faith in Christ. So why is it always explained as just Christ's Righteousness.
Is there passages that I have seemed to overlook, that speak of it explicitly as coming from Christ alone as the doctrine states?
I'm seeking some answers as to why in the doctrine of Justification, where it states, our sin is imputed to Christ, where in scripture does it say Christ imputes His Righteousness to us?
Before you get too confused by my intentions from that question. I need to state, that from scripture I still believe in Righteousness imputed from God as a result of, faith in, and through Christ.
Though the scriptures I know of don't explicitly say the Righteousness comes from Christ, but most do say it comes from God. Such as in,
Romans 1:17
For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith for faith, as it is written, “The righteous shall live by faith.”
Romans 3:21-22
But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it— the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction:
2 Corinthians 5:21
For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
Philippians 3:9
and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God that depends on faith—
It clearly says Righteousness comes from/is of God, through faith in Christ. So why is it always explained as just Christ's Righteousness.
Is there passages that I have seemed to overlook, that speak of it explicitly as coming from Christ alone as the doctrine states?
Thanks,
Matt
It actually says the righteousness of God is revealed by the faith of Jesus Christ...has been manifested through the faith of Christ to those who believe.
It's because most translations have changed the words that should have been "faith of Jesus Christ" to "faith in Jesus Christ." This is one the KJV definately did right. Young's also keeps it as it should be.
Would it make any possible sense that the righteousness of God would come through our faith in Christ? The righteousness of God is manifested in His faith...the prophets and the law testify to His faith, not our faith in Him.
Romans 3:21-22 (Young's Literal Translation)
And now apart from law hath the righteousness of God been manifested, testified to by the law and the prophets, and the righteousness of God [is] through the faith of Jesus Christ to all, and upon all those believing, -- for there is no difference,
You'll have to look up faith of Jesus Christ in the KJV or Young's to see which verses speak of His faith and which speak of our faith in Him.
Notice is was kept the "faith of Abraham" and wasn't changed to faith in Abraham. But the Promise was to the seed, and it was His faith and obedience unto death that revealed the righteousness of God, so it is by His faith that we are declared righteous by the only Righteous One.
Rom. 4:16
Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all,
There is only Just One and dispenser of Life...the just shall live by faith. Those who put their faith in the Just One have His righteousness imputed to them.
Acts 7:52
Which of the prophets have not your fathers persecuted? and they have slain them which shewed before of the coming of the Just One; of whom ye have been now the betrayers and murderers
Very helpful, the simple faith in, to the faith of, makes a huge difference in interpreting the imputation. I'm all for, and open to accepting that Christ imputes, but through my previous study I was hard pressed to find it actually worded so.
How can I differentiate though, the in to of throughout? Is there something in the Greek that would make this clear, and why is it that so many translations have chosen this route. I'm not foregoing your explanation, but considering it highly.
Thanks.
Very helpful, the simple faith in, to the faith of, makes a huge difference in interpreting the imputation. I'm all for, and open to accepting that Christ imputes, but through my previous study I was hard pressed to find it actually worded so.
How can I differentiate though, the in to of throughout? Is there something in the Greek that would make this clear, and why is it that so many translations have chosen this route. I'm not foregoing your explanation, but considering it highly.
Thanks.
Why? Because they have chosen the way of intellect and not knowledge by revelation through the seeking of "knowing" God; intimacy with Him that brings the Mind of Christ..
Very helpful, the simple faith in, to the faith of, makes a huge difference in interpreting the imputation. I'm all for, and open to accepting that Christ imputes, but through my previous study I was hard pressed to find it actually worded so.
How can I differentiate though, the in to of throughout? Is there something in the Greek that would make this clear, and why is it that so many translations have chosen this route. I'm not foregoing your explanation, but considering it highly.
Thanks.
I don't know why it was changed. It's in the older translations and in the Literal, as I pointed out. In the same way the "Love of God" can be referring to our love of God, or His Love.
God's righteousness is not revealed by our faith, but by the faith of Jesus Christ.
Paul is making an argument here that God’s righteousness was revealed “from faith to faith.” God’s perfect righteousness was revealed in and through the faith OF Jesus Christ, and was revealed to faith (our faith as we receive him). That is why the righteousness of God was revealed “apart from the Law." It was revealed through the faith OF Jesus Christ and not by his obedience to the Law (although he did not sin). It wasn’t the Law that revealed God’s righteousness in Him, it was His faith.
Romans 3:20-23
Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin. But now the righteousness of God apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God, through the faith of Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
I don't know why it was changed. It's in the older translations and in the Literal, as I pointed out. In the same way the "Love of God" can be referring to our love of God, or His Love.
God's righteousness is not revealed by our faith, but by the faith of Jesus Christ.
Paul is making an argument here that God’s righteousness was revealed “from faith to faith.” God’s perfect righteousness was revealed in and through the faith OF Jesus Christ, and was revealed to faith (our faith as we receive him). That is why the righteousness of God was revealed “apart from the Law." It was revealed through the faith OF Jesus Christ and not by his obedience to the Law (although he did not sin). It wasn’t the Law that revealed God’s righteousness in Him, it was His faith.
Romans 3:20-23
Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin. But now the righteousness of God apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God, through the faith of Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
Try this out in your thinking. Read this in this manner and see where it takes you:
"Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, andto the faithful in Christ Jesus: Ephesians 1:1 (KJV)
Try this out in your thinking. Read this in this manner and see where it takes you:
"Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, andto the faithful in Christ Jesus: Ephesians 1:1 (KJV)
The original question is not about faith but where the righteousness is imputed from, the source. Exegetically it overwhelmingly says it is from God for those who put their faith in Christ.
it would help me if it said:
"Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and [u]of the righteousness given you from Christ Jesus.
The original question is not about faith but where the righteousness is imputed from, the source. Exegetically it overwhelmingly says it is from God for those who put their faith in Christ.
it would help me if it said:
"Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and [u]of the righteousness given you from Christ Jesus.
Faith is not needed for God to impute Righteousness. Everyone Christ died for has imputed Righteousness based simply upon Christ Death for them. When an Elect is born into this world dead in trespasses and sins, Children of wrath as others by nature, they as an Gift of God's Grace , they are already reckoned Righteous by imputation ! However they do not find out about it until they are born again and given the fruit of Faith to embrace it !
Rom 2:28-29
28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
The original question is not about faith but where the righteousness is imputed from, the source. Exegetically it overwhelmingly says it is from God for those who put their faith in Christ.
it would help me if it said:
"Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and [u]of the righteousness given you from Christ Jesus.
But it doesn't say that, does it? It intimates "AND unto the faithful in Christ Jesus." Paraphrased: "To those learning to be faithful and to those who already are."__Christians all.
Christ is God also ! The Righteousness of the God Man is laid to the charge of those Christ died for ! 1 Cor 1:30
30 But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption:
Rom 2:28-29
28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
Christ is God also ! The Righteousness of the God Man is laid to the charge of those Christ died for ! 1 Cor 1:30
30 But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption:
I know Christ is God, though the doctrine always states only that Christ's Righteousness is imputed. Even in the passage you sited it still says in Christ, from God. That is the dilemma, as you see above most translations say in Christ, but some say of Christ. The question is, if it is correct why is it not stated God imputes Righteousness to those in Christ as most passages state.
". . . . and God that is holy shall be sanctified in righteousness." Isaiah 5:16 (KJV)
From:Chambers, O. (1958; 2002). The Psychology of Redemption. Marshall Morgan and Scott.
"If we have experienced regeneration, we must not only talk about the experience, we must exercise it and work out what God has worked in (Philippians 2:12-13). We have to show it in our finger-tips, in our tongue, and in our bodily contact with other people, and as we obey God we find we have a wealth of power on the inside. The question of forming habits on the basis of the grace of God is a very vital one. To ignore it is to fall into the snare of the Pharisee—the grace of God is praised, Jesus Christ is praised, the Redemption is praised, but the practical everyday life evades working it out. If we refuse to practice, it is not God’s grace that fails when a crisis comes, but our own nature. When the crisis comes, we ask God to help us, but He cannot if we have not made our nature an ally. The practicing is ours, not God’s. God regenerates us and puts us in contact with all His divine resources, but He cannot make us walk according to His will. If we will obey the Spirit of God and practise through our physical life all that God has put in our hearts by His Spirit, then when the crisis comes we shall find that we have not only God’s grace to stand by us but our own nature also, and the crisis is passed without any disaster, but exactly the opposite happens, the soul is built up into a stronger attitude towards God."
"But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear" 1 Peter 3:15 (KJV)
"And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father." Galatians 4:6 (KJV)
Question: Given the above, in whose righteousness will God finally be sanctified?
Last edited by Cross Reference; June 9th, 2012 at 05:16 AM.
". . . . and God that is holy shall be sanctified in righteousness." Isaiah 5:16 (KJV)
From:Chambers, O. (1958; 2002). The Psychology of Redemption. Marshall Morgan and Scott.
"If we have experienced regeneration, we must not only talk about the experience, we must exercise it and work out what God has worked in (Philippians 2:12-13). We have to show it in our finger-tips, in our tongue, and in our bodily contact with other people, and as we obey God we find we have a wealth of power on the inside. The question of forming habits on the basis of the grace of God is a very vital one. To ignore it is to fall into the snare of the Pharisee—the grace of God is praised, Jesus Christ is praised, the Redemption is praised, but the practical everyday life evades working it out. If we refuse to practice, it is not God’s grace that fails when a crisis comes, but our own nature. When the crisis comes, we ask God to help us, but He cannot if we have not made our nature an ally. The practicing is ours, not God’s. God regenerates us and puts us in contact with all His divine resources, but He cannot make us walk according to His will. If we will obey the Spirit of God and practise through our physical life all that God has put in our hearts by His Spirit, then when the crisis comes we shall find that we have not only God’s grace to stand by us but our own nature also, and the crisis is passed without any disaster, but exactly the opposite happens, the soul is built up into a stronger attitude towards God."
"But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear" 1 Peter 3:15 (KJV)
"And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father." Galatians 4:6 (KJV)
Question: Given the above, in whose righteousness will God finally be sanctified?
Your quote doesn't get us any closer the question, it states many things of the walk of a believer but does not get to the heart of the imputation. Again I don't question that Righteousness is given.
I don't see how those scriptures explain Christ imputation of Righteousness. I see in the 1 Peter 3:15 it stating that we are to revere Christ as Holy in our hearts using Him as the answer of our hope to anyone who inquires. Which is rightly so.
Galatians 4:6 just states through Christ we may now enter into this family and finally experience the Father as dad, just as Christ does.
I see that it is explaining that Christ instills in us many things from Him, which I do not doubt that Christ is in a believer.
Though Righteousness is played out within what you wrote, it doesn't get us any closer to if it specifically came from God to those who have faith in Christ as can be seen in those scriptures, or if it came from Christ alone to us.
Your quote doesn't get us any closer the question, it states many things of the walk of a believer but does not get to the heart of the imputation. Again I don't question that Righteousness is given.
I don't see how those scriptures explain Christ imputation of Righteousness. I see in the 1 Peter 3:15 it stating that we are to revere Christ as Holy in our hearts using Him as the answer of our hope to anyone who inquires. Which is rightly so.
Galatians 4:6 just states through Christ we may now enter into this family and finally experience the Father as dad, just as Christ does.
I see that it is explaining that Christ instills in us many things from Him, which I do not doubt that Christ is in a believer.
Though Righteousness is played out within what you wrote, it doesn't get us any closer to if it specifically came from God to those who have faith in Christ as can be seen in those scriptures, or if it came from Christ alone to us.
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