[genuineoriginal]

Originally Posted by Pierac

No because you left out verse 14 which is clearly between verse 12 and 15! As it states...

Gen 19:14 Lot went out and spoke to his sons-in-law, who were to marry his daughters,

This clearly shows... there were no other relatives in the city besides the ones in the house! As... None are spoken of! Only the potential future sons in laws... who were to marry! There are no others spoken of in the text! If his daughters were actually married as in your poorly translated text... They would not be living with daddy! And Big Daddy could not legally offer them to no-one!

Chose your translations wisely!


Paul

If you are right, the the two daughters living at home were promised to other men and Lot attempted to get his daughters to commit adultery, a sin worthy of death in the law God gave Moses. Even without that law the daughters would have been shamed in the eyes of the men that they were promised to.

Genesis 19:8 8Behold now, I have two daughters which have not known man; let me, I pray you, bring them out unto you, and do ye to them as is good in your eyes: only unto these men do nothing; for therefore came they under the shadow of my roof.

If I am right, then any man that would have taken one of Lot's two daughters would have become one of Lot's son in laws, along with the other ones in the city, and Lot can still be called righteous. Lot could not take his married daughters from their husbands since they were no longer living in his house.

2 Peter 2:6-8 6And turning the cities of Sodom and Gomorrha into ashes condemned them with an overthrow, making them an ensample unto those that after should live ungodly; 7And delivered just Lot, vexed with the filthy conversation of the wicked: 8(For that righteous man dwelling among them, in seeing and hearing, vexed his righteous soul from day to day with their unlawful deeds; )