ReligionDiscuss General Theology, Religions and Denominations, God's Attributes, Predestination and Free Will, Dispensationalism, Eschatology, Philosophy, Origins, Archaeology, Science, World History and other such topics.
"The Word BECAME flesh." The Greek "ginomai" means "to become through change."
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God did change so your argument fails. "The Word BECAME flesh." The word "yinomai" means "to become through change."
unfortunately I don't think that is enough to persuade people here to follow Y'shua, they do not have any reverence for those whom are the mouthpiece of God and speak His word, apparently that is not qualifying enough, they want more, surely they shall receive their reward.
keep shinin
jerm
It doesn't matter that the word of God came to them. That's why they thought they were deities. But God mocked them saying, "You are deities but you shall die like mortals."
"As judges people may call you 'lord' [deities], but you are a mortal as anyone else." Reformation Study Bible, page 845, brackets mine.
You may choose to ignore God's intent for saying what He said but I will not.
The ONLY man that God ever called "the God" (ho theos) is Jesus Christ. Hebrew 1:8
Slogan/motto:
"The Chief End of Me Is To Love GOD & Enjoy Him Forever!"
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May 3rd, 2012, 09:25 AM
Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
Col 2:10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:
That pretty much sums it up for me that Jehovah Is Jesus In The Flesh.
Jesus say's here to John: Rev 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, "the Almighty".
This is the LORD = Jehovah speaking to Zachariah:
Zec 12:10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.
Who did they pierce?? JESUS, and JEHOVAH call's "the one whom they have pierced", "me"
It doesn't matter that the word of God came to them. That's why they thought they were deities. But God mocked them saying, "You are deities but you shall die like mortals."
"As judges people may call you 'lord' [deities], but you are a mortal as anyone else." Reformation Study Bible, page 845, brackets mine.
You may choose to ignore God's intent for saying what He said but I will not.
The ONLY man that God ever called "the God" (ho theos) is Jesus Christ. Hebrew 1:8
2nd century LXX redaction.
I assure you I have studied this topic more thoroughly than you, since all you offer thus far are the common misconceptions about the text and their intended meaning.
one can go onto the next verse and read therefore God, your God, has set you above your companions by anointing you with the oil of joy
or KJV says:
Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
context of quoted Torah is important, at least it was to the authors, if we ignore that we might end up making the text mean something other than intended for our own agendas and miss out on the blessing of what it really is saying.
You are not interested in what Jesus Christ stated about Psalm 82, but for the other readers sake.
John 10:34-35
"Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;"
Unto whom did the word of God come? Moses, Jeremiah, Hosea, Paul, Peter and of course Jesus Christ....
John 8:28
Was Jesus Christ's teaching from Psalm 82 erroneous?
You are saying he was wrong.
Why don't you believe what Jesus Christ taught?
oatmeal
Jesus' interpretation is fine. It is YOUR interpretation of Jesus that's wrong.
"If He called them deities (mockingly though you assume you are deities), to whom the word of God came and the scripture cannot be broken...."
They thought they were deities because the word of God came to them. God mocked them saying, "Deities?! You are mere mortals!"
But they thought that God meant to say that they were in fact deities and so Jesus made that the point of contact to prove His own divinity. If they were deities to whom the word of God came and the scripture cannot be broken, then how could Jesus be blaspheming when He claimed to be deity?
"As judges people may call you 'lord' [deities], but you are a mortal as anyone else." Reformation Study Bible, page 845, brackets mine.
I assure you I have studied this topic more thoroughly than you, since all you offer thus far are the common misconceptions about the text and their intended meaning.
LXX redaction? I quoted from the Greek text of the book of Hebrews. It say, "Your throne O (the) God is forever and ever.
I am not sure what you are doing here. Are you saying that the author to the Hebrews cited a redacted form of the LXX and that the Hebrews 1:8 text is corrupt?
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one can go onto the next verse and read therefore God, your God, has set you above your companions by anointing you with the oil of joy
or KJV says:
Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
How would this negate that Christ is God? Jesus told His disciples that He would return to His God and yet Thomas did not infer from that that Jesus is not God. He confessed Jesus as "My Lord and my God.
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I assure you I have studied this topic more thoroughly than you, since all you offer thus far are the common misconceptions about the text and their intended meaning.
Yet you can't even acknowledge that Jesus is the King of Israel and that His riding into Jerusalem was the fulfillment of old testament prophecy. You think that just because His kingdom is "not of this world" that we must infer that it would not be OVER Israel. A spiritual kingdom may still be OVER Israel.
Here is another explanation of Psalm 82:6 which is a better explanation than what I have offered. The Psalm is a Psalm of Asaph and therefore it is Asaph who said of the rulers "you are gods...."
"The expression, 'I said ye are gods,' is drawn from the 82nd Psalm, inwhich Asaph is speaking of princes and rulers, and their position and duties. Their elevation above other men was so great, and their consequent responsibility for the state of nations so great, that compared to other men, it might be said, 'You are as gods.' " Expository Thoughts on John, J.C. Ryle, page 250, Banner of Truth
Jesus was invoking the Psalm verbatim, "I said," but it was Asaph who said that the rulers were 'deities.' God did not say it. Jesus argued that if others may call them 'deities' to whom the word of God came without blaspheming, then He is not guilty of blasphemy when He calls Himself the Son of God. God did NOT say they were deities. Asaph's conclusion was that they were not deities after all. They were mere mortals.
Again I offer you the alternate reading in the footnote of my Study Bible:
"As judges people may call you 'lord' [deities], but you are as mortal as anyone else." Reformation Study Bible, page 845, brackets mine.
Last edited by Wile E. Coyote; May 3rd, 2012 at 04:32 PM.
If you want to retract "Unless I'm an Arian, I'd never even consider the idea. Even if I were, I know enough not to toss that up there for trinitarians. There is absolutely nadda that we'd even entertain," then maybe you're not as entrenched in catholicism as you appear and I won't be wasting my time with you.
Er...I'm calling into question your ability with Greek. I thought it was obvious.
Now to Him who is able to do exceeding abundantly above all that we ask or think, according to the power that works in us,
to Him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, forever. Amen. -Ephesians 3:20 & 21
1Co 13:11 When I was a child, I talked like a child, I thought like a child, I reasoned like a child. But when I became an adult, I set aside childish ways. - Let's at least work at it?
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Separation of church and State is not atheism "We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights..."
LXX redaction? I quoted from the Greek text of the book of Hebrews. It say, "Your throne O (the) God is forever and ever.
I am not sure what you are doing here. Are you saying that the author to the Hebrews cited a redacted form of the LXX and that the Hebrews 1:8 text is corrupt?
For one the OT is not translated from the LXX text, it is translated in most modern Bibles (KJV, NIV etc) from the Masoretic Hebrew text.
I know your thinking ho theos, but it's actually 'elohiym in Psalms 45:6 (which is what Hebrews 1:8 is quoting), 'elohiym had many meanings in the 1st century one of which is "works or special possessions of God", the Son of Man falls into that category.
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Originally Posted by Wile E. Coyote
Yet you can't even acknowledge that Jesus is the King of Israel and that His riding into Jerusalem was the fulfillment of old testament prophecy. You think that just because His kingdom is "not of this world" that we must infer that it would not be OVER Israel. A spiritual kingdom may still be OVER Israel.
I would infer that he was unjustly put to death and accused of being a King of Israel, this was a false accusation to which he suffered for, bearing our (mans) iniquities (if you have ever heard that saying).