Originally Posted by Knight
docrob what question?
If I missed a question certainly isn't wasn't intentional.
I like you, you seem like a really cool guy and I am enjoying this discussion I hope you are as well. Please point me to your question and I would love to answer it for you.
I like you too, that isn't the issue. And you are right, I am a really cool guy
. And as far as I can tell, this is the only doctrinal disagreement that we have! Which is pretty good among Christians.
As an aside, Lord (and finances) willing, I am going to take my wife and daughter on a pilgramage to Denver next year to visit DBC. That way you can all gang up on me at once!
Anyway, my question/argument is this. We both agree that God foreknew that He would send a Savior. It is clearly prophesied in the OT, no debate there. God sent a Savior to redeem man, who was and is irredeemably sinful. Since God sent a Savior, He must have known that man would continue to be irredeemably sinful. My question is, did that foreknowledge cause man to sin? I would suggest not. And, if not, then it is demonstrated that foreknowledge is not equivalent to control and does not rule out free will.