[elohiym]

Jesus, being God, was above the Mosaic law, else he became unclean like every other man under the law.

[Untellectual]

Originally Posted by elohiym

Jesus, being God, was above the Mosaic law, else he became unclean like every other man under the law.

What makes you think this?

[elohiym]

Originally Posted by Untellectual

What makes you think this?

I've read the law. It would be impossible for any man to keep from becoming unclean and guilty, as the law condemned human bodily functions and sins done in ignorance like the accidental touching of unclean things.

What do you imagine Jesus did on the yearly Day of Atonement when everyone else was placing their sins on a goat?

Also, read Luke 1:6. In what way did Jesus obey the law more than John's parents, if you think Jesus did?

[graceandpeace]

Originally Posted by elohiym

I've read the law. It would be impossible for any man to keep from becoming unclean and guilty, as the law condemned human bodily functions and sins done in ignorance like the accidental touching of unclean things.

What do you imagine Jesus did on the yearly Day of Atonement when everyone else was placing their sins on a goat?

Also, read Luke 1:6. In what way did Jesus obey the law more than John's parents, if you think Jesus did?

at least we agree on something.

[Untellectual]

Originally Posted by elohiym

I've read the law. It would be impossible for any man to keep from becoming unclean and guilty, as the law condemned human bodily functions and sins done in ignorance like the accidental touching of unclean things.

What do you imagine Jesus did on the yearly Day of Atonement when everyone else was placing their sins on a goat?

Also, read Luke 1:6. In what way did Jesus obey the law more than John's parents, if you think Jesus did?

Jesus never sinned. Are you saying that is because He didn't keep the law?

My understanding of the day of atonement is that there was a priest who placed the sins of the people. It's not "everyone" else.

[elohiym]

Originally Posted by Untellectual

Jesus never sinned.

Did Jesus ever become unclean according to the letter of the Mosaic law?

Originally Posted by Untellectual

Are you saying that is because He didn't keep the law?

No. I was very clear in my first post that he, being God, was above the Mosaic law. God is not subject to His law. Jesus worked on the sabbath (John 5:17-18).

Originally Posted by Untellectual

My understanding of the day of atonement is that there was a priest who placed the sins of the people. It's not "everyone" else.

What sins specifically do you mean when you say "the sins of the people?" Was Jesus not one of the people?

[Untellectual]

Originally Posted by elohiym

Did Jesus ever become unclean according to the letter of the Mosaic law?

Do you have evidence that He did or something?

No. I was very clear in my first post that he, being God, was above the Mosaic law. God is not subject to His law. Jesus worked on the sabbath (John 5:17-18).

Jesus was born under the law, as the scriptures say.

It is lawful to do good (work) on the Sabbath.

What sins specifically do you mean when you say "the sins of the people?" Was Jesus not one of the people?

Jesus was an Israelite, but He did not sin. The "people" is Israel.

[Untellectual]

Galatians 2:17 But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners, [is] therefore Christ the minister of sin? God forbid.

[elohiym]

Originally Posted by Untellectual

Do you have evidence that He did or something?

Yes. He was a man. The law condemned bodily functions, among other unintentional acts. He necessarily became unclean if he was subject to the law, like all humans subject to the law do.

Originally Posted by Untellectual

Jesus was born under the law, as the scriptures say.

That doesn't mean he was subject to the law, but that he was born when the old covenant was in operation.

Originally Posted by Untellectual

It is lawful to do good (work) on the Sabbath.

It's "lawful" for God to do whatever work He wants on the sabbath because God is above the law, and whatever He works will be good work. The same for Jesus, being God.

Originally Posted by Untellectual

Jesus was an Israelite, but He did not sin. The "people" is Israel.

What sins specifically do you mean when you say "the sins of the people?"

[SeraphimsCherub]

JESUS fulfilled His Own Law which He gave to Moses "for us" . Because we never could. Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

[Untellectual]

Originally Posted by elohiym

Yes. He was a man. The law condemned bodily functions, among other unintentional acts. He necessarily became unclean if he was subject to the law, like all humans subject to the law do.

You place Jesus into the position of having to have become unclean/sin like you? Are you excusing someone else's behavior and not your own? In any case you say Jesus became unclean/sinned, and I do not.

I don't believe Jesus sinned, including becoming unclean. He did not sin at all, and was never unclean.

That doesn't mean he was subject to the law, but that he was born when the old covenant was in operation.

It is true that He was born under the law. This does not mean He was exempt from the law, however.

It's lawful for God to do whatever work He wants on the sabbath, and whatever He works will be good work. The same for Jesus, being God.

Jesus is the mediator between God and man, and He affirmed that it is okay to do good on the sabbath. He never did evil on the Sabbath. Laborious work would have been disobedience to God.

What sins specifically do you mean when you say "the sins of the people?"

I mean the sins of the people over the course of the previous year.

[elohiym]

Originally Posted by SeraphimsCherub

JESUS fulfilled His Own Law which He gave to Moses "for us" . Because we never could. Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

Romans 10:4 contradicts your conclusion if you think about it.

[Untellectual]

Originally Posted by SeraphimsCherub

JESUS fulfilled His Own Law which He gave to Moses "for us" . Because we never could. Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

My argument is that Jesus observed and taught the Law.

[Untellectual]

Matthew 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

Matthew 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

Matthew 5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach [them], the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

Matthew 5:20 For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed [the righteousness] of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven.

[elohiym]

Originally Posted by Untellectual

I mean the sins of the people over the course of the previous year.

What sins specifically? During the year, ordinances prescribed penalties and rituals that gave atonement for people's sins. For example, Leviticus 15:30 states a sin offering is given and atonement is made. Unless you think that sins have to be atoned for twice, you need to explain what sins of the people needed to be atoned for on the Day of Atonement.