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Did God Really Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute? - May 14th, 2012, 05:07 PM

Did God Really Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

According to Hosea 1:2: Many well intentioned Christians believe God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. However, is this true?

Well, to entertain such an idea that the Lord our God would send a specific command to one of His prophets to indulge in an act of fornication with a prostitute is not only wrong but it does not make any logical sense. For there are two very important facts a person has to ignore when they believe such a thing.

#1. A person has to Ignore God's Holy and righteous character. For haven't we read within the Scriptures that say: "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man" (James 1:13).

#2. A person has to ignore just how horrific the sinful act of fornication is bodily and the false worship of idolatry actually is.

Should we believe that the Lord would force a holy man of God into committing this despicable act with a prostitute (i.e. fornication) for the purpose of reproving the abominations of others? How could Hosea be the instrument for exposing & punishing the sin of Israel when He would be just as guilty as they? Where is the wisdom in this, as the means for Israel to change?

I believe part of the problem lies within the translation of Modern Versions. Some of them flat out say that the Lord told Hosea to marry a prostitute. This would include the New International Version (NIV), New Language Translation (NLT), God's Word (2003), and the Webster's Bible Translation to name just a few.

However, according to the King James (1769 Edition) in Hosea 1:2 it says:

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD."

At dictionary.com the word "whoredoms" refers to "idolatry". So if we were to re-read this verse with the word idolatry instead. The verse becomes a lot clearer.

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of idolatry and children of idolatry: for the land hath committed great idolatry, departing from the LORD." ~ (Hosea 1:2)

Doesn't the truth make more sense when you interpret it correctly?
Do you agree?

...



   
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May 14th, 2012, 05:13 PM

Yep.



   
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May 14th, 2012, 05:22 PM

Just so you know...God loves prostitues, too.





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May 14th, 2012, 05:27 PM

An idolater IS a prostitute in God's eyes, for he/she had joined themselves to another (god)......



   
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May 14th, 2012, 05:44 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by Thunder's Muse View Post
Just so you know...God loves prostitues, too.
Yes, He does. I think that is quite the point of the first three chapters of Hosea. Hosea's marriage was a physical and tangible representation of God's relationship with Israel, with His chosen people.



   
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May 14th, 2012, 07:08 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jason0047 View Post
Did God Really Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

According to Hosea 1:2: Many well intentioned Christians believe God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. However, is this true?

Well, to entertain such an idea that the Lord our God would send a specific command to one of His prophets to indulge in an act of fornication with a prostitute is not only wrong but it does not make any logical sense. For there are two very important facts a person has to ignore when they believe such a thing.

#1. A person has to Ignore God's Holy and righteous character. For haven't we read within the Scriptures that say: "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man" (James 1:13).

#2. A person has to ignore just how horrific the sinful act of fornication is bodily and the false worship of idolatry actually is.

Should we believe that the Lord would force a holy man of God into committing this despicable act with a prostitute (i.e. fornication) for the purpose of reproving the abominations of others? How could Hosea be the instrument for exposing & punishing the sin of Israel when He would be just as guilty as they? Where is the wisdom in this, as the means for Israel to change?

I believe part of the problem lies within the translation of Modern Versions. Some of them flat out say that the Lord told Hosea to marry a prostitute. This would include the New International Version (NIV), New Language Translation (NLT), God's Word (2003), and the Webster's Bible Translation to name just a few.

However, according to the King James (1769 Edition) in Hosea 1:2 it says:

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD."

At dictionary.com the word "whoredoms" refers to "idolatry". So if we were to re-read this verse with the word idolatry instead. The verse becomes a lot clearer.

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of idolatry and children of idolatry: for the land hath committed great idolatry, departing from the LORD." ~ (Hosea 1:2)

Doesn't the truth make more sense when you interpret it correctly?
Do you agree?

...
Idolatry is whoring after other gods.

Hosea was told to marry the woman. Which is what Hosea did.

God did not tell Hosea to purchase sex from her.

There is no indication that Hosea had sex with her before they were married.

oatmeal





"And they continued stedfastly in the apostles' doctrine and fellowship and in breaking of bread and in prayers." Acts 2:42

"For in death there is no remembrance of thee: in the grave who shall give thee thanks?" Psalm 6:5

I John 3:1-2. Prov 14:34 Psalm 133:1
   
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May 14th, 2012, 08:09 PM

Why not put this in the religion section where it belongs? It is not an issue to the Body of Christ.





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Titus 1:10-11

For there are many insubordinate, both idle talkers and deceivers, especially those of the circumcision, whose mouths must be stopped

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May 14th, 2012, 10:06 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by Nick M View Post
Why not put this in the religion section where it belongs? It is not an issue to the Body of Christ.
Why not put this in the religion section (that does not deal with Christ)?

1. Well, the story of Hosea is a typification of Christ. In fact, every detail of the Old Testament speaks of the Messiah.

2. This forum is exclusively for those who consider themselves Christian and consider the Bible to be the inspired word of God (See Sub-heading of this thread).

Revised Note:

Okay. I now see why you want to keep the different sections separate. Although I may not agree that the Old Testament is separate on the topic of Jesus Christ, I do believe you want to keep all Old Testament topics and discussions in a place where all believers who hold to the Old Testament can discuss it.




Last edited by Jason0047; July 3rd, 2012 at 08:09 AM..
   
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May 14th, 2012, 10:36 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by oatmeal View Post
Idolatry is whoring after other gods. Hosea was told to marry the woman. Which is what Hosea did. God did not tell Hosea to purchase sex from her. There is no indication that Hosea had sex with her before they were married.
OM:

Having sex before marriage was not the issue. The Marrying of a Prostitute is the problem.

In fact, God had forbidden the marrying of prostitutes within the Law.

"And he shall take a wife in her virginity. A widow, or a divorced woman, or profane, or an harlot, these shall he not take: but he shall take a virgin of his own people to wife." ~ (Leviticus 21:13-14).

Marriage is a sacred union between a man and a woman. If the other person is not faithful, it sort of destroys the whole purpose of what that marriage is trying to be. Which is two flesh becoming one. So God would not go against one of His own highest and "moral" laws that He created.

This lie that "God told Hosea to marry a prostitute" is believed by many Christians. It is pushed within modern translations falsely. Which in effect tries to smear the good name of God's good character.

Which in my book, is totally not cool.

...



   
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May 14th, 2012, 10:49 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jason0047 View Post
"And he shall take a wife in her virginity. A widow, or a divorced woman, or profane, or an harlot, these shall he not take: but he shall take a virgin of his own people to wife." ~ (Leviticus 21:13-14).
That's a command specific to the high priest, having nothing whatsoever to do with making a broad general rule.

Hosea was commanded to marry a prostitute and did so, and in doing so he committed no sin whatsoever. It was God's intention for Hosea's marriage to serve as a picture to his convenant people of his love for them and his willingness to forgive their sins despite their behavior.





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May 14th, 2012, 10:55 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jason0047 View Post

2. This forum is exclusively for those who consider themselves Christian and consider the Bible to be the inspired word of God (See Sub-heading of this thread).

...
So put it where it belongs.





Jesus saves completely.

Titus 1:10-11

For there are many insubordinate, both idle talkers and deceivers, especially those of the circumcision, whose mouths must be stopped

http://www.thereligionofpeace.com/

http://www.climatedepot.com/
   
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May 14th, 2012, 11:41 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by WandererInFog View Post
That's a command specific to the high priest, having nothing whatsoever to do with making a broad general rule.
WIF:

The law not to marry a prostitute not only included the priests but anyone of the house of Israel.

"There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a Sodomite of the sons of Israel. Thou shalt not bring the hire of a whore, or the price of a dog, into the house of the Lord thy God for any vow: for even both these are abomination unto the Lord thy God." ~ (Deuteronomy 23:17-18)

Quote:
Hosea was commanded to marry a prostitute and did so, and in doing so he committed no sin whatsoever.
Don't trust the modern Bible translations you are currently reading. God is not one to break His own moral and sacred Laws. He can change various commands that applied to a specific group of people during a specific time period (like with Noah and his family to repopulate the Earth). However, God does not break His eternal moral laws, though.

Quote:
It was God's intention for Hosea's marriage to serve as a picture to his covenant people of his love for them and his willingness to forgive their sins despite their behavior.
How do we make sure we are not misinterpreting a passage incorrectly in the Bible?

What is the one test that we can do that can prove we are either right, or wrong?

It's by comparing Scripture with Scripture. If you do not have Scripture to back up that Hosea was a prostitute before Hosea married her besides Hosea 1:2, then you don't really have a case. Scripture has to be compared side by side with other Scripture.

Otherwise we fall into the danger of seeing something that is not really there.

For God would never tell one of His own to marry a prostitute. It would not only be immoral on the part of God's character to do so, but it would make God a liar for saying one thing and doing another.

...



   
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May 15th, 2012, 12:08 AM

OK so God and the bible aren't holy enough for you ?

Leviticus 21 which you quoted applies to priests only.

I suggest you believe what the bible says and stop trying to make rules up for God.

If 99% of translations agree, and most bible commentators agree, its probably where things stand.

Seems to be your are demanding God applies your standard, and you are not submitting yourself to his

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jason0047 View Post
OM:

Having sex before marriage was not the issue. The Marrying of a Prostitute is the problem.

In fact, God had forbidden the marrying of prostitutes within the Law.

"And he shall take a wife in her virginity. A widow, or a divorced woman, or profane, or an harlot, these shall he not take: but he shall take a virgin of his own people to wife." ~ (Leviticus 21:13-14).

Marriage is a sacred union between a man and a woman. If the other person is not faithful, it sort of destroys the whole purpose of what that marriage is trying to be. Which is two flesh becoming one. So God would not go against one of His own highest and "moral" laws that He created.

This lie that "God told Hosea to marry a prostitute" is believed by many Christians. It is pushed within modern translations falsely. Which in effect tries to smear the good name of God's good character.

Which in my book, is totally not cool.

...



   
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May 15th, 2012, 12:17 AM

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jason0047 View Post
WIF:

The law not to marry a prostitute not only included the priests but anyone of the house of Israel.

"There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a Sodomite of the sons of Israel. Thou shalt not bring the hire of a whore, or the price of a dog, into the house of the Lord thy God for any vow: for even both these are abomination unto the Lord thy God." ~ (Deuteronomy 23:17-18)
Nothing in that verse is relevant. It forbids hiring a prostitute, not marrying a woman who had been employed as one. You're continuously reading things into the text which aren't there. Also, do you acknowledge that previous text you quotes was directed only to the high priest? Or do you believe everyone is also forbidden to marry widows?

Quote:
Don't trust the modern Bible translations you are currently reading.
The "modern" translation I typically read is the 1599 Geneva Bible: "At the beginning the Lord spake by Hosea, and the Lord said vnto Hosea, Goe, take vnto thee a wife of fornications, and children of fornications: for the lande hath committed great whoredome, departing from the Lord." There is absolutely no question in any translation, that the woman being referred to is a prostitute.

And I could go even further back and quote Martin Luther or Jerome interpreting the passage the exact same way.

Quote:
Otherwise we fall into the danger of seeing something that is not really there.
Which is precisely what you've done here as there exists no passage in all of Scripture which states that a woman who has worked as a prostitute can never leave that life and be married.





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May 15th, 2012, 12:55 AM

When God speaks of whoredoms in the OT He is speaking of the Israelites chasing after other nations idols. So Hosea's marriage probably was to such an Israelite.



   
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