The Book of Revelation: Mystery Or Profitable?

[Arial]

POV: futurist/amillennial

If we approach Revelation from this view, and focus first on the pictures presented what do we see?

In the first three verses of the book we have a prologue which will help to orient us to the kind of contents we will be reading or hearing. The divine authority is stressed. "The revelation of Jesus Christ which God gave Him to show His servants---things which must shortly take place," and its certainty (must). It is made known to John through an angel. It is revelation--disclosing truth, rather than hiding it. These things we are about to read, though they come in symbolic form, is understandable. It is for "His servants" and not for a select elite or group of people. God expects all who hear and read it, from the point that it was given onward to "take to heart what is written (v 3)". To profit spiritually from what is written. "for the time is near."

Nearly 2000 years have past since Jesus gave this message to John, so how can the time be near? The answer according to futurist/amillennialism, is that spiritual war takes place throughout the church age (resurrection to second coming) and that the seven churches John is writing to will soon experience all the dimensions of the conflict. The last days were inaugurated by Christ's resurrection ( Acts 2:16-17). God is, (has been since the resurrection) putting into play the final phase of victorious warfare over evil. There is support for this in the wording John, uses in 1:1 which seems to be built on Dan 2:45. "A great God has made known to the king what shall be after this. The dream is certain, and its interpretation sure."

This vision in Daniel ranges from Nebuchadnezzar's, encompassing several pagan empires until God's kingdom is established (Dan 2:44-45). This kingdom is inaugurated by Christ's first coming (Mark 1: 15; Luke 11:20; Rom 14:7) but it consummation is yet to come. We live in the last days (2Tim 3:1,12; Heb 1:2). It is the end time of spiritual conflict.

 

[Right Divider]

The tribe of Judah rejected Jesus agreed,

All of Israel rejected Christ.

but that doesn't mean all of raptured Israel and gentiles believed he was god.

If anything the rapture has already happened among pre-70AD farming culture. Why is idolatry Orthodoxy?

Your "orthodoxy" is nonsense.

 

[Tambora]

That it is Jerusalem rather than Israel. There are few reports of murdering of prophets outside of Judah in the NT; and all that are in the NT are in Jerusalem. This suggests the whore is just a city, as is the bride of Christ.

Jerusalem is the city named as the killer of prophets.
The NT reveals that there are no prophets that were killed apart from Jerusalem.


Luke 13:33-34 ESV
(33) Nevertheless, I must go on my way today and tomorrow and the day following, for it cannot be that a prophet should perish away from Jerusalem.’
(34) O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the city that kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to it! How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you were not willing!
(35) Behold, your house is forsaken. And I tell you, you will not see me until you say, ‘Blessed is he who comes in the name of the Lord!’”

I still need to work in what is the Dragon with horns. Probably Israel, but Babylon the Great gets mentioned separately from the Whore, and Rome is only noted as a bunch of locusts.

And don't forget to mention that the whore is hated and will be destroyed by the beast with those horns.

Revelation 17:16 ESV
(16) And the ten horns that you saw, they and the beast will hate the prostitute. They will make her desolate and naked, and devour her flesh and burn her up with fire,


Some questions to ponder:

Why would an idolatrous beast full of blasphemy hate an idolatrous whore full of blasphemy and destroy her?​

And why would the beast allow her (who he hates) to ride upon himself for a while?​

 

[Omniskeptical]

All of Israel rejected Christ.

Not true. No condemnation of Israel was given in the NT.
It is better than your modern rapture theories.

Your "orthodoxy" is nonsense.

Idolatry is orthodoxy, not heterodoxy. But that doesn't make you any less of an idolater.

 

[Omniskeptical]

Revelation 17:16 ESV
(16) And the ten horns that you saw, they and the beast will hate the prostitute. They will make her desolate and naked, and devour her flesh and burn her up with fire,


Some questions to ponder:

Why would an idolatrous beast full of blasphemy hate an idolatrous whore full of blasphemy and destroy her?​

And why would the beast allow her (who he hates) to ride upon himself for a while?​

I don't get the impression that the whore hated the Beast, or that the Beast is an idolater. But Herod was claimed to be the voice of God and he became the abomination that cause desolation having been smote by the fire of Jesus' mouth. (Was Christ the angel who smote him?)

 

[Right Divider]

Not true. No condemnation of Israel was given in the NT.

When I say "all of Israel", I'm making a generalization. The remnant definitely did not reject Christ.

Rom 11:25 (AKJV/PCE)
(11:25) For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.

Apparently, this is still a mystery to you.

It is better than your modern rapture theories.

I don't have a "modern rapture theory". I have ancient statements from the apostle Paul.

Idolatry is orthodoxy, not heterodoxy. But that doesn't make you any less of an idolater.

A false accusation from a very confused person, you!

 

[Right Divider]

I don't get the impression that the whore hated the Beast, or that the Beast is an idolater. But Herod was claimed to be the voice of God and he became the abomination that cause desolation having been smote by the fire of Jesus' mouth. (Was Christ the angel who smote him?)

Christ is not an angel. He is the LORD from heaven.

1Cor 15:47 (AKJV/PCE)
(15:47) The first man [is] of the earth, earthy: the second man [is] the Lord from heaven.

Note... THE LORD, not a lord.

 

[Omniskeptical]

2 Thessalonians 2:8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:

 

[Omniskeptical]

When I say "all of Israel", I'm making a generalization. The remnant definitely did not reject Christ.

Most of Israel didn't reject him.

Apparently, this is still a mystery to you.

Worthless conjecture.

A false accusation from a very confused person, you!

Your image of Christ is falsely god. You are an idolater.

 

[Right Divider]

Most of Israel didn't reject him.

False.

Worthless conjecture.

No, just stating a fact.

Your image of Christ is falsely god. You are an idolater.

Christ is THE LORD from heaven. Get it right.

 

[Omniskeptical]

False.

Judah is not all of Israel.

No, just stating a fact.

It was your opinion, and you may lamely call it fact.

Christ is THE LORD from heaven. Get it right.

He isn't the lord of lords YHWH. It is amazing how self-righteous idolatry is in Christian religion.

 

[Right Divider]

Judah is not all of Israel.

The term "Jews" is often used to refer to Israel.
It's a figure of speech called a synecdoche... look it up.

Rom 3:9 (AKJV/PCE)
(3:9) What then? are we better [than they]? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;

Paul is NOT talking about only the tribe of Judah.

It was your opinion, and you may lamely call it fact.

You clearly don't know about it... hence it's still a mystery to you.

He isn't the lord of lords YHWH. It is amazing how self-righteous idolatry is in Christian religion.

There is ONE LORD and it's Jesus... His Father and the Holy Ghost.

Jesus is THE LORD from heaven. Argue with scripture at your own peril.

 

[Omniskeptical]

The term "Jews" is often used to refer to Israel.
It's a figure of speech called a synecdoche... look it up.

It doesn't meant that at all in the New Testament. It wasn't until after the fall of the temple and the rapture, that the Jews couldn't produce Israel's tribes.

Paul is NOT talking about only the tribe of Judah.

That is because he mentions other tribes besides the Jews.

You clearly don't know about it... hence it's still a mystery to you.

The secret is YHWH was manifest in Jesus. Since you are an idolater, you believe both are the same.

There is ONE LORD and it's Jesus... His Father and the Holy Ghost.

"For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)"
[And there is one such lord as Jesus.]

Jesus is THE LORD from heaven. Argue with scripture at your own peril.

Be self-righteous at thy own peril

 

[Right Divider]

It doesn't meant that at all in the New Testament.

Yes, it does in many instances. I realize that you have a learning disability, but I will continue to tell you the truth.

It wasn't until after the fall of the temple and the rapture. that the Jews couldn't reproduce Israel.

What "rapture"? What does "the Jews couldn't reproduce Israel" even mean?

Are you a zombie?

That is because he mentions other tribes besides the Jews.

The SPECIFIC scripture that I showed you uses the term "Jews" to mean ALL of Israel. You are just too dense for words.

The secret is YHWH was manifest in Jesus.

Jesus is YHWH... so yes, He does manifest Himself.

Since you are an idolater, you believe both are the same.

You are a liar and a false accuser.

 

[Tambora]

I don't get the impression that the whore hated the Beast,

That's because the verse says the beast hates the whore. not that the whore hates the beast.

or that the Beast is an idolater.

If the beast does not worship YHWH, the beast demands worship of himself.

 

[Arial]

Jerusalem is the city named as the killer of prophets.
The NT reveals that there are no prophets that were killed apart from Jerusalem.


Luke 13:33-34 ESV
(33) Nevertheless, I must go on my way today and tomorrow and the day following, for it cannot be that a prophet should perish away from Jerusalem.’
(34) O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the city that kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to it! How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you were not willing!
(35) Behold, your house is forsaken. And I tell you, you will not see me until you say, ‘Blessed is he who comes in the name of the Lord!’”






And don't forget to mention that the whore is hated and will be destroyed by the beast with those horns.

Revelation 17:16 ESV
(16) And the ten horns that you saw, they and the beast will hate the prostitute. They will make her desolate and naked, and devour her flesh and burn her up with fire,


Some questions to ponder:

Why would an idolatrous beast full of blasphemy hate an idolatrous whore full of blasphemy and destroy her?​

And why would the beast allow her (who he hates) to ride upon himself for a while?​

Rev 17:15-18 And the ten horns which you saw on the beast, these will hate the harlot, make her desolate and naked, eat her flesh and burn her with fire. For God has put it into their hearts to fulfill His purpose, to be of one mind, and to give their kingdom to the beast, until the words of God are fulfilled. And the woman you saw is that great city which reigns over the kings of the earth.

All evil kingdoms throughout history eventually fall in on themselves, because God is in control. There are a few instances even in the OT where God actually tells us that He is the one behind it. The case involving Sennacherib and King Hezekia is my favorite. It is like God saying to an enemy of His people, "I know who you are, and I know where you live." 2Kings 19. God uses people or nations to bring His judgment, and then He causes them to turn on themselves.

 

[Omniskeptical]

That's because the verse says the beast hates the whore. not that the whore hates the beast.

I thought you said otherwise. Babylon and Rome figure into this somehow. So many symbols

If the beast does not worship YHWH, the beast demands worship of himself.

Actually the verb is προσκυνέω to bend the back at in honor of. Herod for example deserved no such honor.

 

[Omniskeptical]

Yes, it does in many instances. I realize that you have a learning disability, but I will continue to tell you the truth.

It never means this in the New Testament. Since the pharisees/rulers were of Judah, they get a lot mention as Jews in John's gospel.

What "rapture"? What does "the Jews couldn't reproduce Israel" even mean?

Israel's tribes; but the book of Revelation does.

Are you a zombie?

The SPECIFIC scripture that I showed you uses the term "Jews" to mean ALL of Israel. You are just too dense for words.

Again it doesn't. The context doesn't work. The case genitive meaning it doesn't have a gender to state foreign nation, or native nations

You are a liar and a false accuser.

I truly believe you made Jesus as religious image before God, believing it is the God.

 

[Right Divider]

It never means this in the New Testament.

YES, it does. I showed you one explicit example, there are many more:

Rom 3:9 (KJV)
(3:9) What then? are we better [than they]? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;

Rom 3:29 (KJV)
(3:29) [Is he] the God of the Jews only? [is he] not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:

Rom 9:24 (KJV)
(9:24) Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?

In ALL of those verses, Jews refers to ALL of ISRAEL.

Since the pharisees/rulers were of Judah, they get a lot mention as Jews in John's gospel.

What makes you believe that "the pharisees/rulers were of Judah"?

Israel's tribes; but the book of Revelation does.

Again, you make no sense whatsoever.

Again it doesn't. The context doesn't work. The case genitive meaning it doesn't have a gender to state foreign nation, or native nations

You are a loon.

I truly believe you made Jesus as religious image before God, believing it is the God.

What you "truly believe" is irrelevant, particularly since so much of what you "truly believe" is complete nonsense.

Acts 21:39 (KJV)
(21:39) But Paul said, I am a man [which am] a Jew of Tarsus, [a city] in Cilicia, a citizen of no mean city: and, I beseech thee, suffer me to speak unto the people.

Rom 11:1 (KJV)
(11:1) I say then, Hath God cast away his people? God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, [of] the tribe of Benjamin.

 

[Omniskeptical]

YES, it does. I showed you one explicit example, there are many more:

In ALL of those verses, Jews refers to ALL of ISRAEL.

Rom 3:9 (KJV)
(3:9) What then? are we better [than they]? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews Ἰουδαίους [for those who follow Jewish law]and Gentiles [actually Ἕλληνας for someone who uses Greek law], that they are all under sin;

Moses was not Jew also. He was a Levite.

Rom 3:29 (KJV)
(3:29) [Is he] the God of the Jews only? [is he] not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
Here the genitive/possesive ἐθνῶν case is used without gender for all nations. You will find the gender is ambiguous for most plural genitive cases.

Rom 9:24 (KJV)
(9:24) Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
Gentiles is again genitive plural because it is after ex.

What makes you believe that "the pharisees/rulers were of Judah"?

The term purishim from Hebrew coming from the root to detain or arrest.

Again, you make no sense whatsoever.

You are a loon.

What you "truly believe" is irrelevant, particularly since so my of what you "truly believe" is complete nonsense.

Spoken like a Jew speaks to a Christian.
When did Israel just become Judah?!