The normative pattern is always Jew first, but not exclusively.
You didn't answer the question. Again. You demon possessed pervert, go back to your hole under the rock.
Who did Paul and Peter go to first and after?
The normative pattern is always Jew first, but not exclusively.
You didn't answer the question. Again. You demon possessed pervert, go back to your hole under the rock.
Who did Paul and Peter go to first and after?
guess he crawled back under his rocklain:
Nick lost his right to be heard ages ago.
You just wont say because you claim it is to whom they are sent. Even though Paul was sent to the Jews first, same as Peter. Peter did not preach grace. Nor did James. Nor is the red letters. And you know it you filthy liar.
I did say and gave my informed opinion.
Grace is a theme from Genesis to Revelation.
Quit channeling sozo.
No, you claimed a demarcation of ministry. I asked what that means. You said that explains to whom they are going.
This agreement didn't mean very much to Paul (Acts 15).
All we have to do is look at Acts 16-19 and see everywhere he went, he was in the synagogue, preaching to the Jew first.
So much for the demarcation of ministry theory. The right hand of fellowship didn't mean much to Paul.
This agreement didn't mean very much to Paul (Acts 15).
All we have to do is look at Acts 16-19 and see everywhere he went, he was in the synagogue, preaching to the Jew first.
So much for the demarcation of ministry theory. The right hand of fellowship didn't mean much to Paul.
Yes, it is. You just don't believe it.Gal. 2 is not about two gospel messages (except one gospel contextualized for two groups).
Yes, it is. You just don't believe it.
Galatians 2:1 Then fourteen years after I went up again to Jerusalem with Barnabas, and took Titus with me also.
Galatians 2:2 And I went up by revelation, and communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles, but privately to them which were of reputation, lest by any means I should run, or had run, in vain.
...
Galatians 2:7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;
Riiiiiight. Let's test that. In Galatians 2:7 KJV there are TWO gospels:I believe every word of these verses,
Riiiiiight. Let's test that. In Galatians 2:7 KJV there are TWO gospels:
the gospel of the uncircumcision
the gospel of the circumcision
Galatians 2:7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;
That's not an "interpretation". It's believing the words on the page.
You don't believe the words on the page.
Check out other versions.
www.biblegateway.com
Check out other versions. The genitive has dozens of uses. KJV is weak or wrong here. I can accept it as is (the gospel of the Americans is the same as the gospel of the Chinese), but the best scholarship reflects a more accurate understanding of the genitive here (which is often 'of', but not always).
MAD falls apart at the level of original languages, as do the JW/Mormon cultic arguments from KJV only or their sectarian perversions like NWT (KJV is good, but not infallible).
There is an interpretative issue. We all believe the words on the page, yet many come up with countless interpretations on any given text. You are proof texting this out of context of all relevant verses and simplistically refusing to consider the original language grammatical issues. You want to retain a preconceived error at all costs rather than actually do the hard work of exegesis.
I cannot help you.
Check out other versions....I cannot help you.
Until I actually heard a sermon preached on rightly dividing the word of truth, I was just as skeptical as you are about the possibility of two gospels. If you want to see for yourself go here.
http://www.understandingyourbible.com/audio/basic1.ram
Can't get it to play. :idunno: