ECT MADist thought for the day

Status
Not open for further replies.

graceandpeace

New member
Thanks for posting this. I happen to find the threat right as you were sharing it.

I'm familiar with dispensationalism, though not in agreement with it. It was only now that I learned there was a hyper form of it!

There is always a hyper form of ignorance.
 

Tambora

Get your armor ready!
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
If a believer who happened to be a kingdom slave had a wife who was part of the BOC, would the wife be unclean to the husband while she was menstruating?
The law states that under normal conditions the woman would be unclean for seven days, and who ever touches her would be unclean until evening. If the woman was unclean to her husband it would put her under the law. If she wasn't unclean to her husband it would negate the law.

What say you?



Bold emphasis in the following portion of your post is mine.
If the woman was unclean to her husband it would put her under the law.
Having respect for his way of life would not put HER under the law.

Even Paul would not eat certain things when in the household of those who's way of life included refraining from eating certain things, even though he knew he had the liberty to eat anything.
So, adhering to (out of respect) while in their company did not in any way put Paul under the law.
 

andyc

New member
Bold emphasis in the following portion of your post is mine.
Having respect for his way of life would not put HER under the law.

Even Paul would not eat certain things when in the household of those who's way of life included refraining from eating certain things, even though he knew he had the liberty to eat anything.
So, adhering to (out of respect) while in their company did not in any way put Paul under the law.

The obvious difference would be that Paul would would be willing to sacrifice his freedom in Christ in order not to hinder the Jews. This is not a matter of Paul being forced into legalism.
If a man was legally bound to not touch his wife for seven days during her time of uncleanness, this is bondage to the law through legal obligation.
 

andyc

New member
Sure they can.
Unless you think God's grace vanished when the law was given.

Not two covenants coexisting at the same time. There was a degree of grace through the old sacrificial system, but the ceremonial law was contrary to man.

Enmity with God and peace with God cannot co-exist.
 

Tambora

Get your armor ready!
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
The obvious difference would be that Paul would would be willing to sacrifice his freedom in Christ in order not to hinder the Jews.
No different than the wife willing to sacrifice her freedom in order not to hinder the husband.




This is not a matter of Paul being forced into legalism.
If a man was legally bound to not touch his wife for seven days during her time of uncleanness, this is bondage to the law through legal obligation.
She is not legally bound to refrain any more than Paul was legally bound to refrain.

Both the wife and Paul know full well that they were free from such restrictions even though the ones they were with did not.
 

Tambora

Get your armor ready!
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Not two covenants coexisting at the same time.
Then you should have said "covenant" instead of 'grace".

God's grace was always there, no matter how many covenants, promises, or laws came along the way.
 

andyc

New member
No different than the wife willing to sacrifice her freedom in order not to hinder the husband.




She is not legally bound to refrain any more than Paul was legally bound to refrain.

Both the wife and Paul know full well that they were free from such restrictions even though the ones they were with did not.

No, for Paul it was his decision not to hinder the Jews coming to faith. However, the wife would be legally bound by the law to stay away from her husband. If she was considered ceremonially unclean to God, she is under the law.
 

graceandpeace

New member
Sure they can.
Unless you think God's grace vanished when the law was given.

The law was given for one purpose. To condemn, and being that it was the ministration of death; and ADDED to the original covenant made to Abraham, explains WHY Abraham, and those of faith looked forward to OUR day for the promise to be received.

Mixing law and grace is how every form of heresy begins.



2 Cr 3:6 Who also hath made us able ministers of the new covenant; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.

2Cr 3:7 ¶ But if the ministration of death, written [and] engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which [glory] was to be done away:


2Cr 3:8 How shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious?

It is only the new covenant that is the ministration of the spirit..the old covenant is the ministration of death; and only works wrath...as the bible states...there was no life in it; no promise of life. ONLY by faith and looking forward to OUR day; by PROMISE, which is the way of faith is a man given life, and even they had to wait until the death of Jesus for to receive the promise. Heb 11.

2Cr 3:9 For if the ministration of condemnation [be] glory, much more doth the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory.

Which is why those of faith receive even better promises; that are not based on physical land, etc...or physical kings, but, on the spiritual REALITIES; witnessed through the new covenant itself...of which Paul was a minister.
 

graceandpeace

New member
Then you should have said "covenant" instead of 'grace".

God's grace was always there, no matter how many covenants, promises, or laws came along the way.

ONLY by PROMISE/ looking forward to OUR day, the NEW covenant.

If you state otherwise, you make God a liar. There was no grace under the old system, it was only by promise in what was to come...and, those whom walked by faith; embraced it......those whom did not, were cut off, due to what? UNBELIEF.
 

graceandpeace

New member
It did under the law, and that's why we need Jesus. God has always been merciful, but the law is not.

Exactly..it ONLY works wrath....which was it's purpose.

To bring condemnation; so that people would repent..some of them misused it then, as they do now..mixing law and grace which is how every false teaching begins.
 

Tambora

Get your armor ready!
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
ONLY by PROMISE/ looking forward to OUR day, the NEW covenant.

If you state otherwise, you make God a liar. There was no grace under the old system, it was only by promise in what was to come...and, those whom walked by faith; embraced it......those whom did not, were cut off, due to what? UNBELIEF.
Foolishness.

If there was no grace for anyone who lived under the law, such as David, then no one who lived under the law was saved.

It is you who makes the grace of God a lie. Not me.
 

andyc

New member
Foolishness.

If there was no grace for anyone who lived under the law, such as David, then no one who lived under the law was saved.

It is you who makes the grace of God a lie. Not me.

Hebrews 10:28 Anyone who has rejected Moses’ law dies without mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses.
 

andyc

New member
Exactly..it ONLY works wrath....which was it's purpose.

To bring condemnation; so that people would repent..some of them misused it then, as they do now..mixing law and grace which is how every false teaching begins.

That's right.
Paul explains in Romans 8 that the law was weak through the flesh. Although the law itself is good and holy, it is contrary to the nature of the flesh (Col 2:14). God originally created man to be his own boss in his own world, which is fine while Adam left the fruit of the knowledge of good and evil alone. Once he became aware of morality, the war between flesh and spirit began. The law is simply the full revelation of the knowledge of good and evil laid out in a legal document.

The moment Adam took the fruit he rejected the physical in favor of the spiritual. When he did that he began to die (physically), his world began to die etc. In Romans 8 Paul talks about he who subjected the creation to futility in hope. Obviously it is a physical futility in hope of a spiritual reality. We look for a new world where righteousness dwells (spiritual kingdom). What we see with our own eyes is temporal, but what we do not see is eternal.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top