If we address the matter captive to scripture as to who was born before who,was Moses born and did he write Genesis,Exodus,Leviticus Deuteronomy and Numbers,before or after the book of Job,and why will it change the common belief many hold to?
I will say a little,but I would rather see who else sees this,,,
If Job was written before Genesis,then Moses is giving extra information about the sons of God,and not the other way around,Job is not explaining the sons of God that Moses spoke about,,,(Moses is telling you about the sons of God spoken of in Job),,,
If we are told the END from the BEGINNING(Isaiah 46:10 KjV),then in the beginning(first books) needs clarification,,,
I did not post this in an dispensationist thinking forum for no cause. I am curious as to how you think on the issue of something. If I don't ask you what you think I will always be curious of it.
I say this,or ask it because of considering the different matters of scripture in light of whom they are spoken to,also in light of when in aspect to what was known,and so whom it was relevant to at that time.
In examining the entirety of the writings we refer to as the bible,the bound together books we received as scripture, it stands out that in the order presented by the various publishers are in my opinion, in an incorrect order.
The first book in our bible in my opinion should be "Job",but there's a reason why I say this. Looking at it no different than when the differences between the the A9 position and not understanding that there was an closer to one approach or stewardship verses the other,this also as an eyeopening awakening.
At times looking at the details of certain things becomes the key to realizing portions of information that were not at first recognized as sitting there,but when seen become undeniable.
Considering the certain dispensations of times as presented ,it by presentation being the dispensation of grace,and it being the present stewardship in our face,at this present time might also focus us to only look at it and neglect another times agreement before God in the reckoning of our eschatology .
So Job,,if we set it as the first book in scripture and read it then continued to Genesis would anything change in our understanding? Why should it be first instead of Genesis? Who is Eliphaz or the others and were they born before Moses,why should that book be first?
Approach it in the same frame of mind as when we saw to rightly divide the matter of the two Gospels. Determine when and to whom this was spoken. Reason through who began the sayings that fallen angels conceiving children with the daughters of men and you will see it was Moses.
I apologize for not responding quickly,I thought I would read the link to the other thread you gave(your thread) to get an understanding of what you and the others saw concerning the book of Job and still am reading through it,lol.
I also agree Moses probably did not write all of this (the parts after his death you point out). In Genesis 2:4 KJV Moses states that this is the "generations of the Heavens and the earth" ,then in Genesis 5:1 KJV he begins with "the BOOK of the generations of Adam" so i notice it was as though he had ended the first book and began another at that point.
I also think that Job lived during the days of the Patriarchs. Why is that his friends are decedents of Esau and others so then they were born after Esau. The others also were after that point in time as it seems in your thread you are aware of.
Moses is about a 7th generation decedent of Abraham so all of those mentioned in Job are after Isaac and before Moses but somewhere in that area from what Ive reasoned.
So in Job the law(given through Moses) had not been given yet so which explains why there is no mention of it,on one hand. On the other even if it had been given it may not have been spoken of because if they were not decedents of Jacob/Israel then they were never in captivity but were in "Seir" in Deuteronomy 2 KJV. when Israel was going into the promised land.
In many discussions there has always been the debate over whether the "sons of God" in Genesis are the "sons of Seth who married daughters of Cain" or,,if they are sons of God meaning "angels who took daughters of men" and bore children with them.
So me trying to see this disp. if Job was written before Genesis(Moses wasn't yet born) then the first mention of the sons of God are in Job(but doesn't mention them taking the daughters of men). So "afterword" Moses mentions the sons of God the second time in scripture and adds to them that they took the daughters of men to wife and bore giants ect.
This then becomes different in the explanation of who the "sons of God" were and why is because of who began the idea that they were angels who did this,which was Moses himself.
Those who lived then seemed to be aware of who is being referenced to as the sons of God when Genesis was written. So in Genesis when Moses referenced them he was adding information to what they(those who lived then) already knew about those sons of God.,,,lol,kind of like Moses meant "oh yea,and the sons of God from the book of Job also married humans and bore giants",,,
lol,Ill read more in your link for a while and thanks for yoyr response.