Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
In the KJV we see a translation at Matthew 26:17 which says that the first day of the feast of unleavened bread preceded the Passover:
This translation is obviously wrong because the Passover always preceded the first day of unleavened bread:
The "Passover" was a memorial to the events that happened when the Lord said that he would "pass over" the blood stained houses of the Israelites (Ex.12:13-14).
The feast of unleavened bread was a memorial to the time when the Israelites left Egypt (Ex.12:17).
So the memorial of Passover was in regard to events which took place IN EGYPT. On the other hand, the memorial called the "feast of unleavened bread" is in regard to events when the Israelites LEFT EGYPT.
Therefore, if we are to believe the Scriptures it would be ridiculous to argue that the first day of the feast of unleavened bread preceded the passive with all these facts before us.
So the translators of the KJV made a huge blunder by having the first day of the feast of unleavened bread precede the Passover.
I prefer to stick to the translation found here since it is obviously the correct translation:
"Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?" (Mt.26:17; KJV).
This translation is obviously wrong because the Passover always preceded the first day of unleavened bread:
"In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month in the evening, is the Lord’s passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread to the Lord" (Lev.23:5-6; RSV).
The "Passover" was a memorial to the events that happened when the Lord said that he would "pass over" the blood stained houses of the Israelites (Ex.12:13-14).
The feast of unleavened bread was a memorial to the time when the Israelites left Egypt (Ex.12:17).
So the memorial of Passover was in regard to events which took place IN EGYPT. On the other hand, the memorial called the "feast of unleavened bread" is in regard to events when the Israelites LEFT EGYPT.
Therefore, if we are to believe the Scriptures it would be ridiculous to argue that the first day of the feast of unleavened bread preceded the passive with all these facts before us.
So the translators of the KJV made a huge blunder by having the first day of the feast of unleavened bread precede the Passover.
I prefer to stick to the translation found here since it is obviously the correct translation:
"Now on the first day of Unleavened Bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying, “Where will you have us prepare for you to eat the passover?” (Mt.26:17; RSV).