i will be glad to do that. Here the Lord Jesus illustrates that the word of God works in concert with the Spirit and that union results in life:
"It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life" (Jn.6:63).
We can understand that the gospel also works in concert with the Holy Spirit:
"For our gospel came not unto you in word only, but also in power, and in the Holy Spirit, and in much assurance" (1 Thess.1:5).
Even though Paul makes it plain that the gospel comes in much power and in the Holy Spirit the Calvinists say that it is powerless to save anyone unless a person is first "born again."
In the following words of the Apostle John we see that "life" comes as a result of believing that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God:
"Jesus performed many other signs in the presence of his disciples, which are not recorded in this book. But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name" (Jn.20:30-31).
So when a person believes he is "born again" (regenerated) by the word of God:
"Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God...And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you" (1 Pet.1:23,25).
"He chose to give us birth through the word of truth, that we might be a kind of firstfruits of all he created" (Jas.1:18).
This demonstrates that a person is "born again" as a result of believing the gospel. The Calvinists teach that being "born again" happens prior to believing.
I think the addition of the John passage is essential to your argument. But it's interesting to me that John spends much time explaining how Jesus is "the Word" (John 1:1), and the other writers don't so much. However, both Peter and James talk of "the word" in your passages in a way that is very reminiscent of John's use of "Word", while your citation of John 6:63 reverts to "words", which is not a representation of Christ. Is it possible that "the Word" is meant by Peter and James, and that the good news requires that Word, not just the "word"?
If that's the case, then I'm not sure how strong those two verses are for your argument--they are saying that for someone to believe requires that object of faith (Jesus) to actually exist, but it doesn't seem to bear on the ordo salutis.
Just my opinion...