Originally posted by Yorzhik
I wasn't talking about which crimes are worse or not. I was talking about the obviousness of the crime.
Originally posted by Hilston
Was the law to keep the Sabbath obvious? Why does a crime have to be obvious? Paul said his gospel will judge the men of this age. Judgment will be based on a specific standard that is not obvious to everyone. The obviousness of laws is not at issue.
Thanks for proving my point. The Sabbath laws were not obvious. A crime does not have to be obvious. Even after being told (without so-called emphatic indirection, but directly) what the Sabbath law was and how violations were handled in Moses, they still checked with God. That's why they had to clarify the first offense against the Sabbath with God.
Exd 31:14 Ye shall keep the sabbath therefore; for it [is] holy unto you: every one that defileth it shall surely be put to death: for whosoever doeth [any] work therein, that soul shall be cut off from among his people.
Num 15:33-35 And while the children of Israel were in the wilderness, they found a man that gathered sticks upon the sabbath day. And they that found him gathering sticks brought him unto Moses and Aaron, and unto all the congregation. And they put him in ward, because it was not declared what should be done to him. And the LORD said unto Moses, The man shall be surely put to death: all the congregation shall stone him with stones without the camp.
I'm using the word "obvious", and what I mean by that is some laws, like ceremonial laws, must be explicitly laid out because we couldn't possibly come to the conclusion that these things are wrong on our own. However, despite the unreliability of the law that God placed in our hearts, it has been reliable enough (obvious enough) that cultures at all times and in all places have at least some kind of law against stealing and murder.
The whole point is that a prohibition against Christmas must be a ceremonial law. That's all I'm saying. Can we agree on that?
Originally posted by Hilston
... And even transdispensational laws were spelled out…
We agree. Even laws written on the heart are also written in stone for a good reason.
Originally posted by Hilston
Do you really believe God intended multiple interpretations of His Word?
No, I don't think God intended multiple interpretations of His Word. However, we humans are fallible at interpretation and some wrong interpretations are more understandable mistakes than others. The point that you didn't comment on is that God did not clearly state this particular ceremonial law that you claim is in the Col 4 and Gal 2 passages. You can beat the drum on how much more emphatic it is to use a 3rd person imperative, but to be clear when you create a ceremonial law, you must be direct.
Take your example. You tell your child, "Tabitha will not scream again because you pulled her hair." And you've stated a good example where the third person imperative delivers more force to the law you are stating. But your example is weak. Your son
already knows he isn't supposed to pull his sisters hair. It doesn't work if the law wasn't already clear.
Originally posted by Hilston
Do you have any comments regarding his sloppy exegesis?
I'll comment as soon as you tell us how long you've had homosexual tendencies.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
"God doesn't want you to have any fun!" Hilston means.
Originally posted by Hilston
Is that the best you can do, Yorzhik? Demonize me as an ascetic? My church doesn't do dour and somber communion rituals. We have a feast. My church doesn't mandate Sunday as a religious day of sober reflection and meditation. We hang out together all afternoon, root for the Steelers, have a cookout, and light up our Macanudos. You already know this, Yorzhik. You're just lashing out because the scriptures threaten your ritualistic and religious "fun." Peter thought it would be "fun" to eat with his Jewish buddies in Antioch, and Peter rebuked him to his face in public. But Peter had the sense to recognize that Paul wasn't just saying, "God doesn't want me to have any fun!"
I accept your scathing remarks. My quote was supposed to have been removed from my reply, but somehow it got back in (I remember highlighting and deleting it). But there it is, so pile on.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
For every ceremonial law that God had, there was an analogy reason for it. And for every non-ceremonial law God has, there is a practical reason for it. This fits neither. It cannot be ceremonial because that would defeat the purpose of having a law that existed solely to be not ceremonial. And we already agree that it isn't non-ceremonial (all non-ceremonial laws are across all dispensations).
Originally posted by Hilston
Yorzhik, what are you talking about? Non-Levites were not allowed to touch the ark. If they did, they were killed on the spot. What kind of law is that? Religious ceremony invokes the ministry of angels. Paul makes that point several times. The Body of Christ is not to submit to angels, but the other way around.
Right, that was the point, not very well made, of my quote. All laws must be either ceremonial or non-ceremonial. All non-ceremonial laws have a practical application, so your prohibition against religious celebration cannot be non-ceremonial. Your prohibition is ceremonial by definition - and thus you submit to the very thing that you claim the law was created to avoid.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
Yes, grace was underneath the law in the prior dispensation.
Originally posted by Hilston
It's no different in this dispensation, Yorzhik.
It's different. The whole point of this dispensation is to be different. The reason this dispensation is more glorious isn't because we have better laws, but because our relationship with God is different. Despite your claims to the contrary, if we are the same with different laws, our relationship with God; only the times change.
Hilston continues:
That's the point of Paul comparing Abraham's faith with the Body's in Gal. 3.
Abraham was a special case, he is the father of both dispensations. And they are separated by law and grace. Rom 4:16 Therefore it is of faith that it might be according to grace, so that the promise might be sure to all the seed, not only to those who are of the law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all
Originally posted by Hilston
It didn't matter in prior dispensations? This is where your logic leads, Yorzhik, contrary to scripture. Love for God and love for His Law were no less important than they are today.
No, in the prior dispensation they were supposed to do certain ceremonial works. And regardless of how good a person was, if they didn't do certain ceremonial works, they were executed anyway.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
If you don't follow the laws it doesn't matter directly.
Originally posted by Hilston
What an embarrassment. Did you even read this after you typed it?
Yes, this I actually double-checked and approved. It's only embarrassing to those who don't understand the nature of God.
BTW, "it don't matter
directly". It do matter, but not in the same way as the prior dispensation.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
What matters directly is your attitude/motivation toward God, and if your attitude/motivation is bad, that will probably mean you will not do things to please God, including breaking laws.
Originally posted by Hilston
This is relativism, Yorzhik. This is not moral clarity. This is ambiguous self-styled religiosity. It's sickening.
By relativism, do you mean that I'm claiming "anything goes"?
Originally posted by Hilston
Yorzhik, there are some portions of the Bible that must've fallen out of yours. Rather large sections. You might want to replace your Bible with a complete one, because I think you'll find the missing portions to be quite important and instructive regarding ceremonial laws. For example, there's a section called Leviticus and one called Numbers. There are dozens and dozens of chapters that give detailed instruction regarding ceremonial laws. I encourage you to get these and read them.
Yes, and all the ceremony is controlled by a civil government, that's a big chuck of those books I'm missing from my bible… I think. Since my bible is missing those books perhaps you could confirm that for me.
Originally posted by Hilston
Why does God spell things out if the law is known naturally?
Because the conscience is unreliable. That doesn't mean it is valueless, but that any heart can be hardened against any law or laws.
Originally posted by Hilston
So, in your view, is God simply restating the obvious?
No, God is setting the standard.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
Rom 2:14-15 explains that even non-believers have some kind of naturally known law in their hearts.
Originally posted by Hilston
The mistake you are making is that verse does not give authority to their understanding, because doing what is right in one's own eyes leads to the death (Pr 16:25). You cannot rationally tell a person "Murder is wrong because I know it deep down inside." So-called "natural law" has no authority. The very next verse indicates that God's law, not natural law, but specifically the law He gave to Paul, will judge all men of this age.
Yes, I know the verse does not give authority to their understanding. You missed the point. There are laws, Godly ones, that are written on the heart of every human. Ceremonial laws are not written on our hearts.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
Hilston, the sin nature is not what drives you to celebrate the anniversary of someone's birthday. Especially someone you love.
Originally posted by Hilston
I didn't say that.
Yes, that is what you are saying… unless you are saying Christians don't love Jesus.
Hilston continues:
It is the sin nature that drives you to celebrate religious birthdays and anniversaries and holidays. These things entice and bewitch men of today, just as they did the Galatians. Sin is dispensationally specific. When people rebel against God, they do so in a way that is specific to the current law.
No, it is only religious because the person happens to be the head of our religion. We cannot stop Jesus from having that position, but since we love Him we want to celebrate the anniversary of His birthday.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
The Col 2 passage is not emphatic.
Originally posted by Hilston
Says you.
It uses the third person imperative. Emphatic, in this context, would be using second person imperative.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
The passage is Col 2:14 sets the context that there is a reason why ordinances are not imposed on this dispensation. Because they are contrary to us, ...
Originally posted by Hilston
Why are they contrary to us?
Because ceremonial laws cannot exist in a time of pure grace.
Originally posted by Hilston
You miss Paul's point. He is equating Jewish ordinances to pagan ones.
No, he was stating that the Jewish laws are deleted in this dispensation. The previous passage should have, if we had other laws, made exceptions. But it doesn't.
Col 2:13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
Originally posted by Hilston
Was Paul rebuking Peter in public for not "ignor[ing] judgments concerning the kinds of ordinances that were a part of the previous dispensation"?
Yes.
Originally posted by Hilston
Yorzhik, this completely false. "Let no one trouble me" is nothing like "Let no one judge you." The third-person imperative doesn't grammatically correspond at all.
You have to be kidding. "Let no one trouble me" is nothing like "Let no one judge you"… Actually, people that trouble other people are judging them. What you are saying is "Let no one [judge me]" is nothing like "Let no one judge you". Ohhhhhhh now I see it. Right; they are nothing like each other.
You have to study real hard to get that obtuse.
Originally posted by Hilston
Notice how you ignore all the other passages that DO correspond directly to the grammar of this passage just so you can have your Christmas cake and eat it too. Here's one that corresponds nicely:
Mt 9:30 And their eyes were opened; and Jesus straitly charged them, saying, See that no man know it.
You would rather focus on a verse that does not correspond just so you can claim that Paul was not being emphatic. You ignore this and other verses that unambiguously correspond because they convey emphatic commands. Go figure. People will do anything to justify their sin.
Your mistake is that Mt 9:30 does not dictate that Col 2:16 uses the third person imperative the same way. The context sets the usage, and Col 2:16 is not equal to the commands given in Lev about the ceremonial laws.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
Gal 4:24 explains emphatically, clearly, and strictly, that the law that Paul did not want the Galatians to follow was the law given on Mount Sinai. It was the ceremonial laws, required, and obligatory for the previous dispensation. ...
Originally posted by Hilston
Why are they prohibited, Yorzhik?
Because we don't have ceremonial laws in this dispensation.
Originally posted by Hilston
You miss Paul's point: When they observed pagan holidays, they did service to the angelic realm (elemental spirits). Now that they are allowing themselves to be enticed and bewitched by the Jewish holidays, they are turning again to the angelic realm. That is the point. Celebrating religious holidays, whether pagan or Jewish, is angel worship (Col. 2:18).
No, the point was that they (the Jews) had ordinances and this dispensation doesn't. He didn't want the body believers to be beguiled by the Judizers who were puffed up in the mind because they kept the law. A puffed up mind is the same problem you could fall into, and undoubtedly will be a prevalent problem among people that believe the same as you. It's unavoidable in a dispensation of works.
Originally posted by Hilston
This is eisegesis, Yorzhik. All dispensations were ruled by law and practiced by grace among God's elect. That's the point of Paul's discussion about Abraham and the faith and grace he had BEFORE the giving of the Mosaic Law.
Then they are all the same.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
What you are trying to do is create a dispensation that is the same as the last - same design, different laws.
Originally posted by Hilston
That is what the scriptures teach, Yorzhik. What you are trying to do is to bury grace away from God's people of previous dispensations just so you can call Paul's laws "optional" and thereby justify your violations.
Originally posted by Yorzhik
I'm just curious, do you view all the dispensations the same? Just a different set of laws?
Then this dispensation is no more glorious than the last.
Originally posted by Hilston
Of course, Yorzhik! That's what dispensation means! A different set of laws.
Then this dispensation is no more glorious than the last.