Could most modern English translations be in error?

Faither

BANNED
Banned
Only humans who have a wrong faith could possibly in error. They think that their intelligence and knowledge can be used to judge the Word of God. In the first place however, they lost faith in an almighty God who has all the power to ensure that His Word can be conveyed consistently throughout history such that humans can be judged by a said standard.

That being said,

The Septuagint indicates that the Greek term pistis especially corresponds to the Hebrew term ’emûnāh, “fidelity, faithfulness.” The related verb form ’āman describes a faithful attitude toward another human being; it is especially used to denote a relationship with God (Genesis 15:6; Exodus 14:31; 2 Chronicles 20:20). It also indicates a trust in God with respect to His Word and His promises (Joshua 3:5; Psalm 106:12 [LXX 105:12]), and obedience to His commands (Psalm 119:66 [118:66]). The many dimensions of faith are also expressed by the Hebrew verb bāṯach, “to rely on, put confidence in” (cf. peithō), as well as by the verb chās̱āh, “to seek refuge in.” In both cases God is often the object in whom trust/confidence/refuge is placed or sought. Faith is not a passive resignation to life like fate; rather, it is confidence that God will fulfill His promises and will carry out His salvation plan just as it is expressed in the covenant relationship.


Faith is not a new concept in Jesus' days, and it's neither a new translation. It's a concept embedded in the Septuagint long ago.

There are two pictorial words for Faith in the Hebrew , they are associated with the words you presented . Do you know what they are ?
 

Hawkins

Active member
There are two pictorial words for Faith in the Hebrew , they are associated with the words you presented . Do you know what they are ?

My argument is that the "faith" concept is long existed, wording itself is never a point.
 

Rosenritter

New member
Or , we could simply and just go to the source which is the Greek word " pistis " .

Pistis is Greek word where we get our English word Faith . Remembering that we are talking about a noun , a person , place or thing , a thing in this case .

Strongs expanded dictionary defines pistis as : " 4102 : reliance upon Christ for Salvation ; conviction of the truth ; pistis is used of " belief with the predominant idea of trust or confidence ."

Would you agree with these facts ? And that the word Faith is a noun , a thing , and not an action or the application of this particular thing , Faith ?

If we were native Greeks, I would suggest pistis but since English is our tongue and the I can read the scriptures in English, I would use the word faith. When I see the Strongs expanded definition you gave (4102) the immediate word that comes to mind is faith.

While the word faith might be a noun, English has a very simple adjustment for applying a noun as an action. For example, faith can become to have faith having faith. It's a mechanism that is built into the language.

Jas 2:18 KJV
(18) Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.

Faith is belief in action, thus James questions the validity of a faith that has no works.

I don't see a need to correct the translation. It already makes sense to me in the same way as you describe.
 

Faither

BANNED
Banned
If we were native Greeks, I would suggest pistis but since English is our tongue and the I can read the scriptures in English, I would use the word faith. When I see the Strongs expanded definition you gave (4102) the immediate word that comes to mind is faith.

While the word faith might be a noun, English has a very simple adjustment for applying a noun as an action. For example, faith can become to have faith having faith. It's a mechanism that is built into the language.

Jas 2:18 KJV
(18) Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.

Faith is belief in action, thus James questions the validity of a faith that has no works.

I don't see a need to correct the translation. It already makes sense to me in the same way as you describe.

Got ya .
 

Rosenritter

New member

Hope that's a "good" "Got ya!" If your goal is to ensure an understanding of faith and belief then this is good, it's a worthy cause and will probably continue to need effort. James devoted some time to this and wasn't his epistle recorded in Greek?

But as for using the examples of faith and belief for the question of whether most modern English translations are in error in that instance, I would say "no" for the aforementioned reasons that the same understanding was communicated by those English translations. At least it was for me. As for someone else not me, I suspect that replacing their English bible with a Greek one would be less than helpful. A step backwards from Tyndale.
 

Faither

BANNED
Banned
My argument is that the "faith" concept is long existed, wording itself is never a point.

That's kind of why I brought up those two pictorial words in the Hebrew for Faith .

1) " is the running to the shelter of a mother birds wings .". Emphasis on the continual running towards something .

2) " to lean on a staff , with "ALL" your weight behind it . Emphasis on complete trust in the staff .
 

Faither

BANNED
Banned
Hope that's a "good" "Got ya!" If your goal is to ensure an understanding of faith and belief then this is good, it's a worthy cause and will probably continue to need effort. James devoted some time to this and he was already using Greek.

But as for using the examples of faith and belief for the question of whether most modern English translations are in error in that instance, I would say "no" for the aforementioned reasons that the same understanding was communicated by those English translations. At least it was for me. As for someone else not me, I suspect that replacing their English bible with a Greek one would be less than helpful. A step backwards from Tyndale.

No , absolutely a good got ya ! Out of respect for your respect . You know how rare that is in here .

I have a thread in ECT forum called pisteuo the secret of the universe . That has a basic foundation o what I would share with you . Be glad to talk about this more with you , but if you are holding to only the English translations , I would just hope God has a different plan to get you to the same place .
 

Rosenritter

New member
No , absolutely a good got ya ! Out of respect for your respect . You know how rare that is in here .

I have a thread in ECT forum called pisteuo the secret of the universe . That has a basic foundation o what I would share with you . Be glad to talk about this more with you , but if you are holding to only the English translations , I would just hope God has a different plan to get you to the same place .

I trust that when we are changed we will understand all tongues. In the meantime I have faith that God can communicate through his Spirit with the English translation that he has given me and I haven't been let down by acting on that belief. Maybe I will look at the other thread later.
 

Ayn Marx

New member
Whilst finding the learned discussion here interesting I suggest we need to define concepts such as ‘original’, either mistranslated or not. Many sweeping claims the Bible is the innerant ‘Word of God’ fall flat without proof any particular version is the ‘original’ one.
For me this isn’t a mere academic exercise. For instance, the controversy over the ‘correct’ translation of a passage attributed by some to Paul at 1st Timothy.1:10 may illustrate this problem. Such assertions such as ’the clear teaching of the Bible’is homosexuality is an abomination in the eyes of the Lord are cast in doubt if we examine the tranlation of arsenokoitis as used in 1st Timothy. The Revised Standard Version gives this as ’sodomites’, the King James version as ’those that defile themselves with mankind’. Linguistic scholars of ancient Greek are mostlty inclined to translate arsenokoitis as ’someone who abuses relationships for personal or monetary gain, some giving the translation as ‘pimp’ Where does the truth lie? And this is before we put Galatians 1:13-17 and Philippians 3,5-6 under the academic microscope not to mention Leviticus in relation to the death penalty.

As to any claim ‘God can communicate through is Spirit with the English translation he has given me’ there’s a real problem. How do you know such a ‘communication' is indeed from the deity you imagine it to be? Here we confront that ancient problem of faith and knowledge even Aquinus couldn’t solve.
 

Rosenritter

New member
Whilst finding the learned discussion here interesting I suggest we need to define concepts such as ‘original’, either mistranslated or not. Many sweeping claims the Bible is the innerant ‘Word of God’ fall flat without proof any particular version is the ‘original’ one.
For me this isn’t a mere academic exercise. For instance, the controversy over the ‘correct’ translation of a passage attributed by some to Paul at 1st Timothy.1:10 may illustrate this problem. Such assertions such as ’the clear teaching of the Bible’is homosexuality is an abomination in the eyes of the Lord are cast in doubt if we examine the tranlation of arsenokoitis as used in 1st Timothy. The Revised Standard Version gives this as ’sodomites’, the King James version as ’those that defile themselves with mankind’. Linguistic scholars of ancient Greek are mostlty inclined to translate arsenokoitis as ’someone who abuses relationships for personal or monetary gain, some giving the translation as ‘pimp’ Where does the truth lie? And this is before we put Galatians 1:13-17 and Philippians 3,5-6 under the academic microscope not to mention Leviticus in relation to the death penalty.

As to any claim ‘God can communicate through is Spirit with the English translation he has given me’ there’s a real problem. How do you know such a ‘communication' is indeed from the deity you imagine it to be? Here we confront that ancient problem of faith and knowledge even Aquinus couldn’t solve.

1. Do you believe in the creation of the heavens and the earth?
2. Do you believe that the world that was was destroyed by a worldwide flood?
3. Do you believe that Christ died, was buried, and rose three days later?
4. Do you believe that the scriptures are from God?
5. Do you believe this passage (below) are actual words of Christ or fabricated by someone else?

Matthew 5:18 KJV
(18) For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
 

Ayn Marx

New member
I can see you’re somewhat of a literalist which makes dialogue almost pointless.
However to answer your question :-
1 to 4, no.
Matthew 5:18 - Could be, but as to what exactly is meant, I’m not sure.Instance ‘Law’ has many meanings in scripture
 

Rosenritter

New member
I can see you’re somewhat of a literalist which makes dialogue almost pointless.
However to answer your question :-
1 to 4, no.
Matthew 5:18 - Could be, but as to what exactly is meant, I’m not sure.Instance ‘Law’ has many meanings in scripture

If you don't believe God is our Creator, and you don't believe that Christ rose from the dead, and you don't believe the scriptures are of God, then what right do you have to argue over whether a New Testament passage is correctly translated or accurate from the original? Given your negative answers to all of those questions, it would seem that you think this is a deluded joke anyway. If I have misjudged you then please help with my misunderstanding.
 

genuineoriginal

New member
If you don't believe God is our Creator, and you don't believe that Christ rose from the dead, and you don't believe the scriptures are of God, then what right do you have to argue over whether a New Testament passage is correctly translated or accurate from the original? Given your negative answers to all of those questions, it would seem that you think this is a deluded joke anyway. If I have misjudged you then please help with my misunderstanding.

This thread is in the Religion forum, not the Exclusively Christian Theology forum.
Anyone can chime in despite their unbelief.
:idunno:
 

Rosenritter

New member
This thread is in the Religion forum, not the Exclusively Christian Theology forum.
Anyone can chime in despite their unbelief.
:idunno:

I am not challenging the right or freedom of anyone to post, but rather the validity (or even sense) of questioning whether a phrase was correctly translated if the origin of the passage is considered worthless anyway.

When you or I talk about the translation of a passage, it is because we consider the proper understanding to be from above, that the words and meaning are of God. But when Any Rand questioned the passage, he (she?) was meaning that the opinion of one person may not have been correctly translated because of the opinion of a different person, and as such the question is pointless, as either end arrives at the opinion of one person.
 

JudgeRightly

裁判官が正しく判断する
Staff member
Administrator
Super Moderator
Gold Subscriber
Some handy tags besides QUOTE and /QUOTE also include SPOILER and /SPOILER. Just place flat brackets [ and ] to make the tags active and watch your posts become legible and easy on the eyes. Gain the respect and admiration of your peers!
This one's for you Rosey!

Use the [NOPARSE] tags when you want to show what the tags look like without putting spaces between the brackets.

Like so:
[QUOTE]
[/QUOTE]
[SPOILER]
[/SPOILER]
[YELLOW]
[/YELLOW]
[B]
[/B]
[I]
[/I]
[U]
[/U]
[COLOR=RED]
[/COLOR]
[SIZE]
[/SIZE] Etc....
 
Top