Paul says that Jesus is the LORD GOD
- Thread starter Right Divider
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Right Divider
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Where you able to get the point that I was making in the OP?
Idolater
Popetard
Just a coincidence. :/
Right Divider
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For sure!
No, I'm not aware of the point you are making in the OP. I just re-read it and do not know what you are implying.
Right Divider
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I'm saying that Paul quotes an old testament passage about the LORD GOD judging where "ever knee shall bow" and Paul relates that attribute to the Lord Jesus Christ being the one to whom "ever knee shall bow".
In other words, Paul is directly calling Jesus the LORD GOD.
OK, I agree 100%. "Before Abraham was, I AM."
Greetings again Lon,
Kind regards
Trevor
It has been a couple of years since my post, but I had a quick glance at TOL and I had an Alert on this thread. I decided to browse the thread and discovered your question on John 8:58. My brief answer on John 8:58 is that I prefer the translation "I am he", the same as John 8:24,28 and this is part of the theme in John's Gospel of whether or not Jesus is the Christ.
Kind regards
Trevor
Right Divider
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We definitely need to translate the text in such a way that you prefer it.
Did you understand the point of the OP at all?
Greetings again Right Divider,
John 8:24 (KJV): I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins.
John 8:28 (KJV): Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
The same words also appear in the following and these are also translated "I am he":
John 4:25–26 (KJV): 25 The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things. 26 Jesus saith unto her, I that speak unto thee am he.
John 9:8–9 (KJV): 8 The neighbours therefore, and they which before had seen him that he was blind, said, Is not this he that sat and begged? 9 Some said, This is he: others said, He is like him: but he said, I am he.
Kind regards
Trevor
I mentioned that the same words in the following in the immediate context are translated "I am he".We definitely need to translate the text in such a way that you prefer it.
John 8:24 (KJV): I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins.
John 8:28 (KJV): Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
The same words also appear in the following and these are also translated "I am he":
John 4:25–26 (KJV): 25 The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things. 26 Jesus saith unto her, I that speak unto thee am he.
John 9:8–9 (KJV): 8 The neighbours therefore, and they which before had seen him that he was blind, said, Is not this he that sat and begged? 9 Some said, This is he: others said, He is like him: but he said, I am he.
Yes. Please also note that I added Posts #3,5,7,9.
Kind regards
Trevor
But that's not what the Greek actually says.
You have to add the "he" to it in order to make it say what you want it to say.
There is no "he" word in the Greek. In any of those passages.
Oh, and John 8:24, even if it did say "I am He," guess Who it would be referring to?
GOD.
Which utterly destroys any claim you have that Jesus isn't calling Himself God.
Greetings JudgeRightly,
John 8:28 (KJV): Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
Kind regards
Trevor
There may not be a "he" in the Greek but every modern translation sees the need to add "he" in the English for John 8:24 and John 8:28 for it to make sense in English. No two languages can be exactly translated by simply translating the words as each has its own idiom. Is Jesus claiming to be God in John 8:28, or is he stating that he is absolutely dependent on God His Father?
John 8:28 (KJV): Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
Kind regards
Trevor