The Plain Reading of Scripture

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
A recent exchange on another thread here on TheologyOnline struck me as a nearly perfect example of a problem that comes up constantly in discussions about Scripture:

RightDivider: The body of Christ is not Israel and Israel is not the body of Christ.​
Derf: True. And Israel is not Israel, either:​
Romans 9:6 KJV, “Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:”​
RightDivider: The verse does NOT say what you want it to say.​
Par for the course with you.​
Derf: It only says what you want it to say? How nice to have such a convenient bible.​

That last remark is what caught my attention. It reveals a way of thinking about Scripture that I genuinely find difficult to understand. The implied argument seems to be that if one person claims a passage means something different from what another person claims, then both interpretations are ultimately only matters of preference. Derf's statement amounts to, "If you can make the Bible mean what you want it to mean, then why cannot I do the same?" But that is not an argument about interpretation. On the contrary, it is the abandonment of interpretation.

I can and do understand the frustration that can produce that kind of reply. When someone appears to force a text into a preconceived mold, the temptation is strong to dismiss the whole exercise as special pleading, but the problem is that the dismissal itself gives up the only ground on which any interpretation can be tested.

The Bible is written in language, and language works, it successfully communicates information, because words have meaning and because grammar, syntax, context and ordinary usage constrain that meaning. If those constraints did not exist, communication would be impossible. When I say that a chair is sitting beside a table, I have communicated something definite. You may misunderstand me. I may have expressed myself poorly. Perhaps the word “table” refers to something unusual in a particular context. There may be additional facts that clarify exactly what I meant. None of that makes the sentence infinitely pliable. It does not mean that you are equally justified in deciding that I meant a horse is standing in a river. Words exclude particular meanings as surely as they communicate them. That is why language works, and the same constraints apply when reading Scripture.

Interpretation does not create meaning, but presupposes it. We interpret precisely because something has already been communicated and we are attempting to understand what it is. If meaning comes into existence only when the reader supplies it, then there is no such thing as a correct or incorrect interpretation. There are only different reactions to marks on a page. The very concept of misunderstanding therefore presupposes that the words meant something before the reader began deciding what they meant.

And to be clear, a "plain reading" of Scripture does not mean a shallow reading, a wooden reading or a refusal to recognize figures of speech, idioms, symbolism or distinctions produced by context. It does not mean grabbing one English sentence in isolation and insisting that the first thought that enters our mind must be what God intended. A plain reading means reading the text as language is ordinarily read. We take the words seriously, we pay attention to grammar, we notice who is speaking and who is being spoken too. We pay attention to what question is being addressed, what has already been said and to what follows. We recognize metaphor when the text gives us reason to recognize metaphor. We recognize distinctions when the author makes distinctions. Most importantly, we assume that the writer intended to communicate something and that the meaning of what he wrote can therefore be discovered rather than invented.

Romans 9:6 is a particularly useful example. Paul writes, “For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel.” The sentence contains the word Israel twice, but it does not follow that Paul is teaching the proposition “Israel is not Israel.” If both occurrences of the word, "Israel" meant precisely the same thing in precisely the same respect, then Paul would simply be contradicting himself. He would be saying something nonsensical, and there is no reason to suppose Paul was writing nonsense. The sentence itself tells us that Paul is using the term Israel in two related but distinct senses, and the surrounding argument must determine precisely what that distinction is. The verses that immediately follow begin discussing physical descent, Isaac, Ishmael, Jacob, Esau and the children of the promise, so whatever interpretation one ultimately adopts has to account for that context. One may debate the precise nature of the distinction or how it relates to the body of Christ, but one cannot legitimately erase the distinction and then pretend that the verse is teaching the bare contradiction “Israel is not Israel.”

I'm not trying here to suggest that this is the precise point that Derf was attempting to make the passage say. My point is broader than whatever it was Derf was thinking. My point is that disagreement over interpretation is not settled by accusing the other person of reading into the text whatever he wants. Perhaps he is doing exactly that, but if so, it must be demonstrated. If someone says a verse means something, the appropriate response is to ask whether the words, grammar and context support that meaning. If they do not, then the interpretation is wrong. If they do, then it does not become wrong merely because the conclusion is inconvenient to someone else. The text itself is the authority over both readers. Neither person gets to decide what the passage means simply because he prefers one conclusion over another.

Consider the disastrous nature of the alternative. If Scripture means whatever a reader wants or needs it to mean, then Scripture does not actually communicate anything at all. There would be no such thing as misunderstanding a passage because there would be no objective meaning available to misunderstand. There would only be one reader’s reaction competing with another reader’s reaction. Bible study would cease to be an attempt to discover what the text says and would become a contest over whose preferred interpretation is more persuasive, more popular or more convenient. At that point there is no meaningful distinction between exegesis and mere imagination.

Worse still, the claim that Scripture is so pliable that readers simply make it mean whatever they want is self-defeating. Anyone making that claim expects his own words to be interpreted according to their ordinary meaning. When someone says, “How nice to have such a convenient bible,” he intends that sentence to communicate a particular accusation. If the other person replied, “I interpret that to mean that you completely agree with me,” the response would rightly be that such an interpretation is absurd. Why? Because the speaker’s words had an intended meaning that the hearer was not free to replace with one of his own choosing. The person who denies objective meaning in Scripture necessarily relies upon objective meaning every time he makes the denial.

This does not mean that every passage is equally easy to understand. Some texts are difficult. Some require knowledge of historical setting, idioms or specialized terminology. Some contain genuine ambiguities that may not be easily resolved. Human beings can misunderstand even ordinary speech, and Scripture is no exception. But none of that changes the underlying principle. Difficulty in discovering meaning does not imply the absence of meaning. The mere fact that two people disagree does not establish that both interpretations are equally legitimate. One may be right, both may be wrong, or one may understand part of the passage correctly while missing another part. The disagreement is resolved, to whatever degree it can be resolved, by returning to the text and making arguments from what is actually there.

There is something deeply unhealthy about treating every appeal to the plain meaning of Scripture as though it were merely a disguised attempt to force the Bible to say what one already believes. Certainly people do force their beliefs onto Scripture and we do all have biases, traditions and assumptions that can distort our reading. It is precisely because that danger is real that we need objective controls on interpretation. Grammar is such a control. Context is such a control. Definitions are such controls. Logical consistency is such a control. The author’s argument is such a control. These things do not guarantee that every reader will reach the correct interpretation, but without them there can be no interpretation at all.

The question, then, is not whether I like what a passage says or whether you like what it says. The question is whether either of us can demonstrate from the text that it says what we claim. If I say that a verse means something, I ought to be able to show why. If you say that it means something else, you ought to be able to do the same. Neither of us is entitled to rescue a weak interpretation by declaring that everyone is merely making the Bible say whatever he wants anyway, as Derf's accusation directly implies. Such a response destroys the very concept of interpretation.

Scripture was written to communicate truth. If we are serious about understanding it, then our task is not to make the text say something useful, comfortable or doctrinally convenient. Our task is to read what is there, understand the distinctions the writers actually make, follow their arguments where they lead and allow the text to correct us when our assumptions do not survive contact with it. And that is what is meant by "the plain reading of Scripture". It is not simplistic literalism. It is simply the conviction that words mean things, authors intend things by the words they write, and readers are not free to substitute their own meaning for the one the text actually communicates.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
Last edited:

Derf

Well-known member
A recent exchange on another thread here on TheologyOnline struck me as a nearly perfect example of a problem that comes up constantly in discussions about Scripture:

RightDivider: The body of Christ is not Israel and Israel is not the body of Christ.​
Derf: True. And Israel is not Israel, either:​
Romans 9:6 KJV, “Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:”​
RightDivider: The verse does NOT say what you want it to say.​
Par for the course with you.​
Derf: It only says what you want it to say? How nice to have such a convenient bible.​

That last remark is what caught my attention. It reveals a way of thinking about Scripture that I genuinely find difficult to understand. The implied argument seems to be that if one person claims a passage means something different from what another person claims, then both interpretations are ultimately only matters of preference. Derf's statement amounts to, "If you can make the Bible mean what you want it to mean, then why cannot I do the same?" But that is not an argument about interpretation. On the contrary, it is the abandonment of interpretation.

I can and do understand the frustration that can produce that kind of reply. When someone appears to force a text into a preconceived mold, the temptation is strong to dismiss the whole exercise as special pleading, but the problem is that the dismissal itself gives up the only ground on which any interpretation can be tested.

The Bible is written in language, and language works, it successfully communicates information, because words have meaning and because grammar, syntax, context and ordinary usage constrain that meaning. If those constraints did not exist, communication would be impossible. When I say that a chair is sitting beside a table, I have communicated something definite. You may misunderstand me. I may have expressed myself poorly. Perhaps the word “table” refers to something unusual in a particular context. There may be additional facts that clarify exactly what I meant. None of that makes the sentence infinitely pliable. It does not mean that you are equally justified in deciding that I meant a horse is standing in a river. Words exclude particular meanings as surely as they communicate them. That is why language works, and the same constraints apply when reading Scripture.

Interpretation does not create meaning, but presupposes it. We interpret precisely because something has already been communicated and we are attempting to understand what it is. If meaning comes into existence only when the reader supplies it, then there is no such thing as a correct or incorrect interpretation. There are only different reactions to marks on a page. The very concept of misunderstanding therefore presupposes that the words meant something before the reader began deciding what they meant.

And to be clear, a "plain reading" of Scripture does not mean a shallow reading, a wooden reading or a refusal to recognize figures of speech, idioms, symbolism or distinctions produced by context. It does not mean grabbing one English sentence in isolation and insisting that the first thought that enters our mind must be what God intended. A plain reading means reading the text as language is ordinarily read. We take the words seriously, we pay attention to grammar, we notice who is speaking and who is being spoken too. We pay attention to what question is being addressed, what has already been said and to what follows. We recognize metaphor when the text gives us reason to recognize metaphor. We recognize distinctions when the author makes distinctions. Most importantly, we assume that the writer intended to communicate something and that the meaning of what he wrote can therefore be discovered rather than invented.

Romans 9:6 is a particularly useful example. Paul writes, “For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel.” The sentence contains the word Israel twice, but it does not follow that Paul is teaching the proposition “Israel is not Israel.” If both occurrences of the word, "Israel" meant precisely the same thing in precisely the same respect, then Paul would simply be contradicting himself. He would be saying something nonsensical, and there is no reason to suppose Paul was writing nonsense. The sentence itself tells us that Paul is using the term Israel in two related but distinct senses, and the surrounding argument must determine precisely what that distinction is. The verses that immediately follow begin discussing physical descent, Isaac, Ishmael, Jacob, Esau and the children of the promise, so whatever interpretation one ultimately adopts has to account for that context. One may debate the precise nature of the distinction or how it relates to the body of Christ, but one cannot legitimately erase the distinction and then pretend that the verse is teaching the bare contradiction “Israel is not Israel.”

I'm not trying here to suggest that this is the precise point that Derf was attempting to make the passage say. My point is broader than whatever it was Derf was thinking. My point is that disagreement over interpretation is not settled by accusing the other person of reading into the text whatever he wants. Perhaps he is doing exactly that, but if so, it must be demonstrated. If someone says a verse means something, the appropriate response is to ask whether the words, grammar and context support that meaning. If they do not, then the interpretation is wrong. If they do, then it does not become wrong merely because the conclusion is inconvenient to someone else. The text itself is the authority over both readers. Neither person gets to decide what the passage means simply because he prefers one conclusion over another.

Consider the disastrous nature of the alternative. If Scripture means whatever a reader wants or needs it to mean, then Scripture does not actually communicate anything at all. There would be no such thing as misunderstanding a passage because there would be no objective meaning available to misunderstand. There would only be one reader’s reaction competing with another reader’s reaction. Bible study would cease to be an attempt to discover what the text says and would become a contest over whose preferred interpretation is more persuasive, more popular or more convenient. At that point there is no meaningful distinction between exegesis and mere imagination.

Worse still, the claim that Scripture is so pliable that readers simply make it mean whatever they want is self-defeating. Anyone making that claim expects his own words to be interpreted according to their ordinary meaning. When someone says, “How nice to have such a convenient bible,” he intends that sentence to communicate a particular accusation. If the other person replied, “I interpret that to mean that you completely agree with me,” the response would rightly be that such an interpretation is absurd. Why? Because the speaker’s words had an intended meaning that the hearer was not free to replace with one of his own choosing. The person who denies objective meaning in Scripture necessarily relies upon objective meaning every time he makes the denial.

This does not mean that every passage is equally easy to understand. Some texts are difficult. Some require knowledge of historical setting, idioms or specialized terminology. Some contain genuine ambiguities that may not be easily resolved. Human beings can misunderstand even ordinary speech, and Scripture is no exception. But none of that changes the underlying principle. Difficulty in discovering meaning does not imply the absence of meaning. The mere fact that two people disagree does not establish that both interpretations are equally legitimate. One may be right, both may be wrong, or one may understand part of the passage correctly while missing another part. The disagreement is resolved, to whatever degree it can be resolved, by returning to the text and making arguments from what is actually there.

There is something deeply unhealthy about treating every appeal to the plain meaning of Scripture as though it were merely a disguised attempt to force the Bible to say what one already believes. Certainly people do force their beliefs onto Scripture and we do all have biases, traditions and assumptions that can distort our reading. It is precisely because that danger is real that we need objective controls on interpretation. Grammar is such a control. Context is such a control. Definitions are such controls. Logical consistency is such a control. The author’s argument is such a control. These things do not guarantee that every reader will reach the correct interpretation, but without them there can be no interpretation at all.

The question, then, is not whether I like what a passage says or whether you like what it says. The question is whether either of us can demonstrate from the text that it says what we claim. If I say that a verse means something, I ought to be able to show why. If you say that it means something else, you ought to be able to do the same. Neither of us is entitled to rescue a weak interpretation by declaring that everyone is merely making the Bible say whatever he wants anyway, as Derf's accusation directly implies. Such a response destroys the very concept of interpretation.

Scripture was written to communicate truth. If we are serious about understanding it, then our task is not to make the text say something useful, comfortable or doctrinally convenient. Our task is to read what is there, understand the distinctions the writers actually make, follow their arguments where they lead and allow the text to correct us when our assumptions do not survive contact with it. And that is what is meant by "the plain reading of Scripture". It is not simplistic literalism. It is simply the conviction that words mean things, authors intend things by the words they write, and readers are not free to substitute their own meaning for the one the text actually communicates.

Resting in Him,
Clete
There's a lot to unpack in your ppst, Clete, which I don't currently have time for, but hopefully I can get to it. Suffice it to say that your response to my contention in the other thread is exactly the kind of thoughts I was hoping to stimulate. You boiled it down to language, including grammar and definitions, as well as context. All are meant to provide for us the intentions of the author, and we also have the intentions of the Inspirer as well, as the two may not always be the same. What we want, as best we can discern it, are those intentions. You mentioned my comment about convenience, and attempted to discern my intentions, though you humbly admitted that you weren't sure what they were.

I was involved in an almost lawsuit (threatened but never filed) about a property dispute where a filing of easements across my property was in question. The plaintiff said he had access through my property to his, and demanded I removed fences for him. His evidence was the plat (not sure of the spelling) map that showed easements and the claim on the map that it described the legal use of said easements. All that was true accept for who the easements were for, which was also given on the map--those whose properties were being described on the map. His was adjacent to the Plat being described, so he wasn't included in those who had legal access. But the way the drawing was made was confusing, as it looked like his property was to benefit from the accesses. When talking to the attorney, he made mention of the intent of the filer of the map, which is what would be considered if it went to trial. I told him that the filer (like an author) was still available, and could possibly be a witness for the plaintiff. He told me that the intention would have to be determined from the document, because the filer might have changed his mind or forgotten his intentions, which struck me as quite interesting.

I don't think Paul would have forgotten his intentions before he died, but I can imagine that in some cases the intentions of the Inspirer (I think you understand I am thinking of the Holy Spirit) might have different intentions in some cases than Paul, even. But I don't think even that is necessary in the Romans 9 passage, which is something we can discuss when I have more time to digest your post.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
There's a lot to unpack in your ppst, Clete, which I don't currently have time for, but hopefully I can get to it. Suffice it to say that your response to my contention in the other thread is exactly the kind of thoughts I was hoping to stimulate. You boiled it down to language, including grammar and definitions, as well as context. All are meant to provide for us the intentions of the author, and we also have the intentions of the Inspirer as well, as the two may not always be the same. What we want, as best we can discern it, are those intentions. You mentioned my comment about convenience, and attempted to discern my intentions, though you humbly admitted that you weren't sure what they were.

I was involved in an almost lawsuit (threatened but never filed) about a property dispute where a filing of easements across my property was in question. The plaintiff said he had access through my property to his, and demanded I removed fences for him. His evidence was the plat (not sure of the spelling) map that showed easements and the claim on the map that it described the legal use of said easements. All that was true accept for who the easements were for, which was also given on the map--those whose properties were being described on the map. His was adjacent to the Plat being described, so he wasn't included in those who had legal access. But the way the drawing was made was confusing, as it looked like his property was to benefit from the accesses. When talking to the attorney, he made mention of the intent of the filer of the map, which is what would be considered if it went to trial. I told him that the filer (like an author) was still available, and could possibly be a witness for the plaintiff. He told me that the intention would have to be determined from the document, because the filer might have changed his mind or forgotten his intentions, which struck me as quite interesting.

I don't think Paul would have forgotten his intentions before he died, but I can imagine that in some cases the intentions of the Inspirer (I think you understand I am thinking of the Holy Spirit) might have different intentions in some cases than Paul, even. But I don't think even that is necessary in the Romans 9 passage, which is something we can discuss when I have more time to digest your post.
Derf, your property example actually makes my point better than I did.

Your attorney told you that the intent of the person who filed the plat would have to be determined from the document itself, not from whatever that person might later claim he remembered intending. Exactly! The document is the objective standard because the meaning communicated through the document is what everyone else has access to.

And then, almost immediately afterward, you introduce a second author and suggest that the intentions of the Holy Spirit might sometimes differ from the intentions of Paul.

That is where the wheels come off, Derf! That is where YOUR OWN wheels come completely off!

There is an important distinction here that cannot simply be glossed over. God may certainly understand implications of Paul's words that Paul himself did not fully comprehend. God may know where a prophecy will ultimately lead when the prophet himself does not. God may intend a fuller significance through an inspired statement than the human author consciously realizes at the time he writes it. None of that presents any particular problem because the fuller significance remains consistent with the meaning actually communicated by the words.

But that is very different from saying that the Holy Spirit may intend something different from what Paul intended to communicate.

If Paul writes a sentence intending proposition A, but the Holy Spirit inspires those same words intending proposition B, where B is actually different from A, then whose language are we reading? More importantly, how would we ever determine B?

Grammar gives us Paul's words. Syntax gives us Paul's sentences. Context gives us Paul's argument. Definitions give us the ordinary meanings of the terms Paul chose. Historical setting helps us understand what those words would have communicated to the people to whom Paul wrote. Every objective tool of interpretation you yourself just endorsed takes us back to the meaning communicated through the text.

So where does this separate divine meaning come from?

If it can be established from the words of the document, then it is not some separate meaning hiding behind Paul's intended communication. It is part of what the text communicates and can be argued from the text like anything else.

If it cannot be established from the document, then what objective means do you have for discovering it?

How do you know what the Holy Spirit "really" intended?

How do I know?

What happens when your supposed divine intention contradicts mine?

Which of us wins? By what standard?

Those are not rhetorical questions! They are the entire issue.

You cannot first agree that grammar, definitions, context and authorial intention are the means by which we discover what a text means and then introduce an additional meaning that is allowed to float free of those things. The moment you do that, you have abandoned every objective control you just affirmed. And this is precisely the problem my post was all about!

You seem to think there is some third interpretive category available to us. On one side there is what the words actually communicate. On the other side there is what the reader wants them to mean. Then somewhere above both of those sits what God "really meant," which apparently may differ from what the inspired writer actually intended to say.

But unless that divine intention is communicated through the words God inspired, you have no access to it. None!

You are left guessing or simply making it up out of whole cloth.

Worse, everyone else is equally entitled to their own guess work, and there is no available standard by which one person's alleged insight into the hidden intention of the Holy Spirit can be judged superior to another's.

That is not biblical interpretation. It is theological divination.

And notice how badly this damages the doctrine of inspiration itself. Inspiration is supposed to explain why the words of Scripture reliably communicate what God intends to communicate. Your suggestion threatens to turn inspiration into the opposite. God inspires Paul to write one thing while meaning something else, and the reader's task is somehow to get behind the inspired words to discover what God actually meant.

Why inspire the words at all? If any set of words in whatever order can mean anything we guess it might mean then why bother inspiring it in the first place?

The key point that you fail to see is that the words are the revelation!

If God intended to communicate something through Paul, then He was perfectly capable of inspiring Paul to write language that communicates it. Whatever additional depth or significance God may have intended must therefore be consistent with, and accessible through, the meaning of the words He inspired. Otherwise, the inspired text ceases to be revelation and becomes a kind of coded obstacle standing between us and the real message.

So I will happily agree that the divine Author may know and intend more than the human author consciously understands. What I will not grant is that God may inspire an author to communicate one thing while secretly intending something inconsistent with or independent of what that author actually communicated.

The first preserves inspiration, the second destroys meaningful interpretation.

And if you intend to defend the second, then before we go anywhere near Romans 9, you need to answer the question you have so far left entirely unanswered:

By what objective standard do you propose that anyone determine what God "really meant" apart from what the inspired text actually says?
 
Top