The World God so Loved !

beloved57

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The world of John 3:16, the word world kosmos from which comes our english word cosmos meaning:

means "universe". But the word is generally used to suggest an orderly or harmonious universe,

The greek word means:

kósmos (literally, "something ordered") – properly, an "ordered system" (like the universe, creation); the world.

in Greek writings from Homer down, an apt and harmonious arrangement or constitution, order

This denotes Gods Creation in the very beginning but became disrupted by the entrance of sin and causing all the elect to enter the world as sinners as the non elect, however the elect being the most important part. They are the world of people Chosen in Christ Jesus before the foundation Eph 1:4 !
 

beloved57

Well-known member
Scripture (that thing that you CLAIM to believe) says that John agreed to LIMIT his ministry to the CIRCUMCISION.
Its because of people like you, John wrote 1 Jn 2:2. Unlearned ethnic jews would take 1 Jn 4:10

10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.

Uninformed jews would say the propitiation for our sins is confined to ethnic jews, but John corrects that errant opinion and wrote 1 Jn 2:2

2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours[jewish believers] only, but also for the sins of the whole world[gentile believers].

Yet you still dont get it !
 

Right Divider

Body part
Its because of people like you, John wrote 1 Jn 2:2. Unlearned ethnic jews would take 1 Jn 4:10

10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.

Uninformed jews would say the propitiation for our sins is confined to ethnic jews, but John corrects that errant opinion and wrote 1 Jn 2:2

2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours[jewish believers] only, but also for the sins of the whole world[gentile believers].

Yet you still dont get it !
You are, ONCE AGAIN, arguing with scripture and not with me.
 

JudgeRightly

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He was writing to believers, that they were jews is not relevant.

So Paul lied?

But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter . . . and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7,9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians2:7,9&version=NKJV

Nothing says they werent of the Body of Christ, jews who believe are part of the body of Christ.

Paul says that John and the others agreed to go to the circumcision while Paul went to the gentiles.

Circumcision refers to Israel, the Jews, the people of the circumcision.

There is no circumcision in the Body of Christ, except figuratively, and not of a body part, but of one's heart.

You think when John wrote 1 Jn 4:9-11

9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.

10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.

11 Beloved, if God so loved us, we ought also to love one another.

You think that is only for Jews ?

What I think has nothing to do with it.

Is it only for the Jews? Of course not.

But only TO the Jews? Yes, because blindness in part has come to the Jews, but that blindness is not permanent. Hebrews to Revelation is for Israel (yes, the nation) AFTER "the fulness of the Gentiles" comes in (Romans 11:25), not to Israel today, and CERTAINLY not to the Body of Christ.
 

beloved57

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So Paul lied?

But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter . . . and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7,9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians2:7,9&version=NKJV



Paul says that John and the others agreed to go to the circumcision while Paul went to the gentiles.

Circumcision refers to Israel, the Jews, the people of the circumcision.

There is no circumcision in the Body of Christ, except figuratively, and not of a body part, but of one's heart.



What I think has nothing to do with it.

Is it only for the Jews? Of course not.

But only TO the Jews? Yes, because blindness in part has come to the Jews, but that blindness is not permanent. Hebrews to Revelation is for Israel (yes, the nation) AFTER "the fulness of the Gentiles" comes in (Romans 11:25), not to Israel today, and CERTAINLY not to the Body of Christ.
I have been over this a million times.
 

JudgeRightly

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I have been over this a million times.

You may have danced around it "a million times," but you've never faced it head on.

Answer the question:

Did Paul lie? Yes or no.

But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter . . . and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7,9
 

beloved57

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You may have danced around it "a million times," but you've never faced it head on.

Answer the question:

Did Paul lie? Yes or no.

But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter . . . and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7,9
Who does John mean, the Apostle of the jews, when he writes 1 Jn 2:2

2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Is John writing of the same propitiation in 1 Jn 4:10

10
Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.
 

Right Divider

Body part
Who does John mean, the Apostle of the jews, when he writes 1 Jn 2:2

2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Is John writing of the same propitiation in 1 Jn 4:10

10
Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.
From the guy that thinks what "the whole world" does not mean "the whole world".
You are so funny and ironic.
 

JudgeRightly

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Who does John mean, the Apostle of the jews, when he writes 1 Jn 2:2

2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Is John writing of the same propitiation in 1 Jn 4:10

10
Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.

Propitiation:


Strong's g2434

- Lexical: ἱλασμός
- Transliteration: hilasmos
- Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
- Phonetic Spelling: hil-as-mos'
- Definition: a propitiation (of an angry god), atoning sacrifice.
- Origin: Atonement, i.e. (concretely) an expiator.
- Usage: propitiation.
- Translated as (count): a propitiation (1), propitiation (1).



An atoning sacrifice.

Now answer the question, @beloved57, with a clear yes or no:

Was Paul lying in the following passage?

But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter . . . and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7,9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians2:7,9&version=NKJV

Question 2:

A) In 1 John 2:2, to whom is John referring by using "our" and "ours"?
B) John sets up the answer to the above question as being a different, smaller group/entity than "the whole world." To whom is he referring with "the whole world" (cannot be the same group/entity) as 2A)?

Question 3:

In 1 John 4:10, to whom is John referring by using "we", "us", and "our"?
 

JudgeRightly

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Question 3:

In 1 John 4:10, to whom is John referring by using "we", "us", and "our"?

@beloved57 Followup for Question 3:

Is the "we", "us", and "our" referring to someone different than the "our" and "ours" of 1 John 2:2? If so, how did you come to that conclusion?
 

beloved57

Well-known member
Propitiation:


Strong's g2434

- Lexical: ἱλασμός
- Transliteration: hilasmos
- Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
- Phonetic Spelling: hil-as-mos'
- Definition: a propitiation (of an angry god), atoning sacrifice.
- Origin: Atonement, i.e. (concretely) an expiator.
- Usage: propitiation.
- Translated as (count): a propitiation (1), propitiation (1).



An atoning sacrifice.

Now answer the question, @beloved57, with a clear yes or no:

Was Paul lying in the following passage?

But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter . . . and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7,9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians2:7,9&version=NKJV

Question 2:

A) In 1 John 2:2, to whom is John referring by using "our" and "ours"?
B) John sets up the answer to the above question as being a different, smaller group/entity than "the whole world." To whom is he referring with "the whole world" (cannot be the same group/entity) as 2A)?

Question 3:

In 1 John 4:10, to whom is John referring by using "we", "us", and "our"?
Waste of time, I know what propitiation is. This is a mere diversion tatic which Im not interested.
 

beloved57

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The word world in Jn 3:16 has been abused by the religious world, to make it mean everyone without exception. The word cannot be given a meaning that ultimately contradicts truth of other scripture. One of the ways the word world kosmos is used in scripture, and it doesnt mean all without exception, and far from it, Jn 12:19

19 The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world is gone after him.

Now do the Pharisees here mean the whole world[every human being] without exception ? Of course not, it would be ridiculous to think that. Now they do mean a large number of people, but even then its within the confines of the palastine region

Corresponding the World of Gods own Elect/Sheep is a large number of people out of many different regions Rev 5:9

9 And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;

Rev 7:9-10

9 After this I beheld, and, lo, a great multitude, which no man could number, of all nations, and kindreds, and people, and tongues, stood before the throne, and before the Lamb, clothed with white robes, and palms in their hands;

10 And cried with a loud voice, saying, Salvation to our God which sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb.
 

JudgeRightly

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Ignoring my posts won't make them go away. Please respond to the posts where I have challenged your assertions.

The word world in Jn 3:16 has been abused by the religious world,

No, it hasn't.

to make it mean everyone without exception.

Well, no, it means "the entire world," as in, all humans.

The word cannot be given a meaning that ultimately contradicts truth of other scripture.

What @beloved57 means by this is actually:

"The word cannot be given a meaning that ultimately contradicts what @beloved57 wants it to mean."

Which, yes, it can, and yes, it does.

One of the ways the word world kosmos is used in scripture, and it doesnt mean all without exception, and far from it, Jn 12:19

19 The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world is gone after him.

So what?

Now do the Pharisees here mean the whole world[every human being] without exception?

No one said it did..

Just like every word, kosmos has a sphere of meaning, the meaning of which is ALWAYS determined by the context.

Of course not, it would be ridiculous to think that. Now they do mean a large number of people, but even then its within the confines of the palastine[sp] region

There is no such thing as "the Palestine region."

As for the rest of your claim, not even the word "all" always means "all."

But it DOES have that meaning, and it IS used in scripture. Same with kosmos, it does have the meaning of "all humans," and it is used to mean that.

Corresponding the World of Gods own Elect/Sheep

No such thing.

is a large number of people out of many different regions Rev 5:9

9 And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;

Which is NOT referring to Gentiles.

Note in verse 10:

And have made us kings and priests to our God; And we shall reign on the earth.” - Revelation 5:10 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation5:10&version=NKJV

Believers in the Body of Christ are not called "priests."

Also note: No use of the word "kosmos" is found in this passage.

Rev 7:9-10

9 After this I beheld, and, lo, a great multitude, which no man could number, of all nations, and kindreds, and people, and tongues, stood before the throne, and before the Lamb, clothed with white robes, and palms in their hands;
10 And cried with a loud voice, saying, Salvation to our God which sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb.

And? So what?
 
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