Major red flag for me.
How so?
Major red flag for me.
How so?
Because when someone bashes the KJV they are telling me that they want me to take up a water-down version of God's word and abandon God's 'too hard' word.
For example, many do not like the word 'hell' and prefer the ambiguous 'hades' and 'sheol'.
The KJV warns me that 'hell' is a real bad place. Its temperature is really, really, really, reaaaaaaaaaaaaaallllllllllllllly hot. Bad place to go to. You don't want to go there, the KJV warns me.
The new versions talk about something that is called 'hades' and 'sheol'. Doesn't warn me nothing about its temperature. 'Hades' and 'sheol' do not make my antennae ring. 'Hell' on the other hand makes my antennae ring loud and clear.
The new versions lull the unwary to sleep.
The KJV does not let me sleep (spiritually speaking).
Respectfully, that reads like another version of Jerry's take it or leave it dogmatism.
Consider that in the above, what you are actually asserting is that (one reason) you prefer the KJV is for its use of the word "hell" due to the meaning you have come to attach to that word.
Take the word "sheol" for example:
http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/13563-sheol
Had it been the word you came to take as "the right word" rather than the word "hell," you'd have no beef with it.
The word "hell" is just your preference because that is what you have become accustomed to.
While, to insist on it is to go down Jerry's one way street.
Observe your response to this post of mine, as you post it. What does it tell you are concluding?
Are you sure you are not Jerry disguised?
All you are doing is attacking me in the hope that others reading this thread will not see the truth that the KJV is not a perfect translation of the Bible.
A.A. Hodge said:It is meant that the divine influence, of whatever kind it may have been, which accompanied the sacred writers in what they wrote, extends to their expression of their thoughts in language, as well as to the thoughts themselves. The effect being that in the original autograph copies the language expresses the thought God intended to convey with infallible accuracy, so that the words as well as the thoughts are God’s revelation to us.
That this influence did extend to the words appears—
1st, from the very design of inspiration, which is, not to secure the infallible correctness of the opinions of the inspired men themselves (Paul and Peter differed, Galatians 2:11, and sometimes the prophet knew not what he wrote), but to secure an infallible record of the truth. But a record consists of language.
2nd. Men think in words, and the more definitely they think the more are their thoughts immediately associated with an exactly appropriate verbal expression. Infallibility of thought cannot be secured or preserved independently of an infallible verbal rendering.
3rd. The Scriptures affirm this fact, 1 Corinthians 2:13; 1 Thessalonians 2:13.
4th. The New Testament writers, while quoting from the Old Testament for purposes of argument, often base their argument upon the very words used, thus ascribing authority to the word as well as the thought.—Matthew 22: 32, and Exodus 3: 6,16; Matthew 22: 45, and Psalms 110: l ; Galatians 3:16, and Genesis 17: 7.
I did say "Observe your response to this post of mine, as you post it. What does it tell you are concluding?"
Jumping to conclusions about a thing and others is exactly his problem. You have just made it yours.
Don't do that to yourself. Remain skeptical, yes. Always, as it is very important.
At the same time, strive to keep an open mind to what you might learn that you may not have been aware of.
That is exactly what Jerry does not do.
This is where we each fail to learn from Jerry's kind of "take it our leave it" error, even as our own, three fingers continue to point back to us.
Where we fail to ask ourselves 'am I being/when am I like that?'
This is a failure I find in myself as well.
When a person takes up different versions of Scripture which contradict each other, the reader is obliged to discriminate between the two. Discrimination is an act of judgment. When two contradictory versions of Scripture are permitted, the reader is ipso facto required to sit in judgment on holy Scripture, and thereby excuses himself from the authority of the Word of God.
It's the same day.
Passover lambs were killed on the 14th.
You're STILL confusing TRANSLATION with what you THINK THAT IT SHOULD HAVE SAID.OK, I agree with you. The "day" mentioned in both of these verses is the same exact day:
"And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover?" (Mk.14:12; KJV)."Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the Passover" (Mt.26:17; KJV).Now that we agree that both of these verses are speaking of the same exact day now let us look at this verse again to determine what day of the month these things happened:
"And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover?" (Mk.14:12; KJV).You said that the day when the Passover was killed on the 14th:
That means that the day mentioned here was the 14th:
"Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the Passover" (Mt.26:17; KJV).We can know that this translation from the KJV which says "the first day of the feast of unleavened bread" cannot possibly be correct since that day was on the 15th and not the 14th:
"And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread" (Lev.23:6; KJV).The translation at Matthew 26:17 in the KJV is in error.
That 'hell' tells me exactly what it means and 'sheol' and 'hades' are ambiguous?
No, I simply gave you my response.
I do not have a tendency of copying others' style.
Never was it may intention to offend you with my response.
I ask your forgiveness.
I am always skeptical of anyone, and I mean anyone, who tells me that this Bible or that Bible is better than the KJV.
My mind has been closed for certain things and I will not budge on them.
The KJV being one of them; however, I do not impose my belief on anyone else.
I have no idea of what exactly Jerry does as I have had but a couple of interactions with him and I have not read him much.
I do not believe I told you that you were wrong and I was right.
I also do not believe I told you to ‘take or leave it’.
I simply responded to your inquiry.
Again, I beg your forgiveness if I did something inappropriate in my response.
You're STILL confusing TRANSLATION with what you THINK THAT IT SHOULD HAVE SAID.
You're a moron JS.
Yep, same day - the 14th.OK, I agree with you.
Yep, same day - the 14th.
Because, per scripture, the entire 8 day period can be referred to as Passover or Unleavened Bread.
Luke 22 KJV
(1) Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.
Right there is proof that the feast of unleavened bread can be referred to as Passover.
And then, the same day is mentioned again, but calling it the day of unleavened bread.
(7) Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed.
Easy peasy when you harmonize scripture instead of straining at gnats.
You're STILL confusing TRANSLATION with what you THINK THAT IT SHOULD HAVE SAID.
You're a moron JS.
So?
Just as the beginning of the day changed the beginning of the year changed as well (Ex.12:2).
As I said, the Jewish day started in the morning, as witnessed by what is written here:
"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulcher" (Mt.28:1; KJV).
The two Marys came to the tomb at the rising of the sun (Mk.16:1) and that is when the first day of the week began.
According to you the day spoken of there would have ended in the evening. But when the evening of that day came that day remained the first day of the week:
"Then the same day at evening, being the first day of the week, when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled for fear of the Jews, came Jesus and stood in the midst, and saith unto them, Peace be unto you" (Jn.20:19; KJV).
12am?