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Why don't creationists publish?

6days

New member
When it comes to physics, you are so far out of your element that I really wonder if there is any point in responding to you.
True… out of my element in physics, but it seems you are out of your element with logic. You seem to believe that everything can come from nothing. That BELIEF IS NOT SCIENCE, and not based in physics. (Even quantum fluctuations require something pre-existing)
 

redfern

Active member
Let's just read the passage in its entirety:


We now have to prove that any ray of light, measured in the moving system, is propagated with the velocity c, if, as we have assumed, this is the case in the stationary system; for we have not as yet furnished the proof that the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light is compatible with the principle of relativity.
At the time when the origin of the coordinates is common to the two systems, let a spherical wave be emitted therefrom, and be propagated with the velocity c in system K.
Transforming this equation with the aid of our equations of transformation we obtain [a solution].
The wave under consideration is therefore no less a spherical wave with velocity of propagation c when viewed in the moving system. This shows that our two fundamental principles are compatible.


— Equations deleted. Source.

Looks to me like Einstein claimed to have proved "that any ray of light, measured in the moving system, is propagated with the velocity c." :idunno:

Are you saying that Einstein did not prove the constancy of the speed of light?

Stripe, I will now nurse that puppy that was abused back to health, by including some details you are ignorant of or misrepresenting.

Michael Faraday (1791 – 1867) was a British fellow who was intensely interest in science from his youth. He was poorly educated, but as a young man he managed to get a job as an assistant to a prominent British scientist. In spite of his lack of education, he proved to be brilliant at thinking up and performing experiments, often dealing with magnets and electricity. His lack of mathematical training forced him to document what he discovered about E&M (electricity and magnetism) as best he could in journals without the benefit of concise equations. Yet he still managed to produce a wealth of data and discoveries about E&M.

James Clerk Maxwell, also a British scientist, was born 40 years after Faraday, and was well trained in mathematics and physics. Maxwell soon focused on the data and discoveries that Faraday had produced, and was able to reduce most of Faraday’s E&M discoveries to just 4 concise mathematical equations. The equations involve multi-variable calculus (sometimes called “Advanced Calculus), but in fact they depend on mathematical concepts (gradient and curl) that all physicists, and probably most engineers should be comfortable with.

Several new realizations about light quickly became evident, based on Maxwell’s equations. One was that the speed at which light travels (commonly denoted as just the letter “c”) could be computed by a simple equation involving two measurable constants (called permittivity and permeability). Permittivity deals with electricity and permeability deals with magnetism. It was not a big step then to realize that a light wave could be composed of a transverse magnetic field wave (which simply means the wave “crests” and “valleys” were up and down, similar to waves on the surface of a pond), and a perpendicular transverse electric field wave (meaning it also had crests and valleys like water waves, except these crests and valley were left and right). Embedded in this video it touches on this (plus a bit of other stuff - sorry):


But now comes the kicker that is directly relevant to Stripe’s rant. If the speed of light can be computed by the simple equation involving permittivity and permeability I alluded to above, now let’s have someone in a travelling train measure those two constants involved in the speed-of-light equation. Is he gonna get a different value than some scientist sitting in a lab at work will get? Not if Newton was right. Newton said the laws of nature do not change if someone is in uniform motion. But that means the train guy must measure the speed of light to be the same as the guy by the track, even though the train guy is racing along towards the oncoming beam of light. TILT. That idea conflicts with Newton, since Newton (and “logic” and “common sense”, etc.) all said that the train's speed must be added to the speed of the oncoming beam of light.

This apparent constancy of c was recognized from Maxwell’s equations before Einstein was even born. For several decades physicists struggled with this incompatibility between Newton and Maxwell’s equations. Before Einstein was old enough to get involved there were experiments performed trying to understand this apparent anomaly (see MIchelson-Morley).

When Einstein was old enough, he became aware of and interested in this issue. He struggled with it, and reviewed the development of Maxwell’s equations. Satisfied that Maxwell was not in error, finally Einstein took the rather bold step of assuming that the constancy of c was not just an artifact due to how we measure speeds, but was a fundamental property of how nature worked. Once that light popped into his head, then he rather quickly followed what the math told him based on this radical new idea, and soon submitted the paper that Stripe misunderstands to a German Physics Journal.

It is significant to note that in his work Einstein derived some mathematical equations that are now referred to as the Lorentz Transformations. Why weren’t they named after Einstein? Because several physicists and mathematicians (including Hendrik Lorentz) were struggling with the incompatibility between E&M and Newton long before Einstein showed up. Lorentz decided to simply see if he could derive some equations which would convert E&M answers into Newton-compatible answers. He did that when Einstein was still a toddler. Had Lorentz taken the daring step of saying his equations were not just a useful mathematical tool, but instead they were a fundamental correction to Newton’s ideas, then we would be singing the praises of Lorentz, while Einstein might have been remembered as a minor figure in the history of physics.

Now on to the puppy-dog paper that Stripe keeps abusing. Once Einstein had fleshed out for himself the conclusions his radical idea led to, then he turned to the task of how to present it in a formal paper to be submitted to “The Annals of Physics” (English equivalent of the German Journal title). He starts his paper by mentioning some of the apparent incompatibilities between Maxwell’s E&M and Newtonian Mechanics. In the second paragraph of his paper, he explicitly mentions the constancy of c in Newtonian frames (meaning when measurements can be taken when moving, but not when accelerating). In that same second paragraph he first introduces the concept of what he calls “The Principle of Relativity”. He then proceeds to show how concepts which had long seemed to be without question were, in fact not valid, such as the idea that length is an absolute quantity. He shows how the constancy of c requires that the length of an object as measured from a non-moving observer has to contract when the object being measured is moving at a steady velocity. He concurrently shows that the measurement of time itself is altered when one of two originally identical clocks measures time differently than the other if either is put in motion.

A couple of pages later we come to the place that Stripe is interested in. Notice Stripe’s claim:

Looks to me like Einstein claimed to have proved "that any ray of light, measured in the moving system, is propagated with the velocity c." :idunno:

What Stripe has no clue about is that in the paper in question Einstein had just introduced a distinctly new way of understanding length and time, based on c being constant, and based on velocity. Einstein’s coming-in position was that c was a constant in the Newtonian world, but he had not showed that c was still invariant under this radical new “Relativistic” way of thinking. In Stripe’s reply he omitted the accompanying equations, probably because they involve mathematical symbols that would be hard to show in a TOL post. But he did link to the Einstein’s paper, so if anyone is interested, they can go to it.

As I noted a couple of posts back, the first equation in the section Stripe is concerned with is an equation used to describe an expanding spherical wave, similar to the wave that spreads out across the surface of a pond when a rock is tossed into it. The wave spreads out uniformly in all directions. But that first equation was for a wave in Newtonian space, not in the Relativistic system Einstein was proposing. But within a few paragraphs Einstein showed that even in his new Relativistic way of looking at things, the light wave still spreads out uniformly. Immediately thereafter, as Stripe’s quote shows Einstein did say “any ray of light, measured in the moving system, is propagated with the velocity c”. Einstein’s mention of “the moving system” is in direct reference to the whole subject he was addressing – a moving system as viewed from the standpoint of relativity.

It is interesting why Einstein would do no more than show light wave spreads out uniformly in his new system, and then declare that c was therefore a constant. It is because, unlike some amateur rabid dog-abusing doubters, Einstein knew that years before it had been shown that one of the simplest acid tests for any proposed solution to the conflict between Newton and E&M would be to show that a spherical wave would still be spherical when viewed from a moving reference frame. An earlier attempt to resolve the Newton-E&M conundrum was to postulate the existence of an ether – the substance that was believed to be what light waves were “waving” in. The famous Michelson-Morley experiment was an attempt to show that “ether” (but it failed). Had the ether existed, the speed of light in different directions would have been measurably different, and a spherical wave would deform as it spread.

So yeah, Einstein proved c was STILL a constant, IN THE NEW RELATIVITISTIC SYSTEM he was proposing. And the equations he used were the simplest ones that conclusively established that.
 

redfern

Active member
True… out of my element in physics, but it seems you are out of your element with logic. You seem to believe that everything can come from nothing. That BELIEF IS NOT SCIENCE, and not based in physics. (Even quantum fluctuations require something pre-existing)

Gotcha – you are gonna dictate to nature that she must obey your “logic”, and you as a non-scientist are gonna dictate to the world of physics what is and isn’t science.
 

6days

New member
Gotcha – you are gonna dictate to nature that she must obey your “logic”, and you as a non-scientist are gonna dictate to the world of physics what is and isn’t science.
I'm asking you a very simple question which you are avoiding. Do you believe that nothing caused everything? Or do you believe that the cause of everything existed eternally?
 

6days

New member
redfern said:
Do you really think that saying that there are scientists who dispute the Big Bang is the conceptual basis I was asking about?
Nope... That isn't what was said. Your "conceptual basis" of 'no time' before the Big Bang is a belief....and a belief which many prominent cosmologists and physicists reject. The belief is not science. It is trying to rationalize evidence with beliefs.
redfern said:
Amazing. Science shows no such thing. (That our DNA is the most sophisticated code in existence)
So... you belief in aliens that have created even more sophisticated codes? Or do you believe that codes which transmit information requiring action might have self created elsewhere in the universe?

Either way redfern, your belief is illogical... not based in science. As Bill Gates said “DNA is like a computer program but far, far more advanced than any software ever created.”
redfern said:
Hmmm… I could name a dozen Nobel laureates in physics who think it is science.
Believing in white holes, aliens, alchemy or and intelligent designer, does not make it science.
redfern said:
...would or would not those YEC scientists see the same unexplained deviations from the laws we thought light and gravity would obey?
Of course...ALL scientists see the exact same things through telescopes. But sometimes scientists have different or even opposing plausible ideas or beliefs, from which they try to understand, and explain evidence. If you start with the belief in the Big Bang, and that galaxies spontaneously form, then you need rescue devices such as dark matter (both warm and cold dark matter), white holes, dark energy and much more.
redfern said:
6days said:
Based on evidence...I assume that the theory of biogenesis is correct. Life only comes from life. Based on evidence and logic I assume the cause was an omnipotent omniscient life.
In contrast there is substantial agreement from diverse fields in secular science that the world is vastly older than you claim it is.
You can believe that, the earth is old if you wish (Much evidence against that)… But what I said is that based on evidence and logic I assume the cause of life was an omnipotent omniscient life.
redfern said:
6days said:
...if you are going to use the argument that bad design is evidence against the Creator, then you should also be willing to acknowledge that good design should be considered as evidence for a Creator...That is logical.
Is it logical? Symbolically, if we denote good design as “A’ and intelligent Creator as “B”, then you are asserting that “if not A then not B” implies that “if A then B”....
Nope... You are misrepresenting. It is the evolutionist who argues 'if not A (good design=designer), then it must be B (evolution did it). That evolutionist argument implies that good design is evidence for a Designer).
redfern said:
If you resort to attributing good wing design purely to something God did, then you are jettisoning any pretense of being able to support your claims using science.
Strawman argument.... That was not what I said.

I did however suggest that good design can be considered as evidence for a good designer. I did also say that scientific research has never shown an insect or a bird's wings being designed by 'nature', but instead research reveals harmful effects to wings caused by mutations. (Perhaps you want to start over and use an example different than wings?... Maybe Finch beaks?)
redfern said:
Remember, if there is even one aspect seen anywhere in nature where nature came up with both a very functional design ......
Your argument is "childish" to use your words. There are numerous examples of mutations altering or destroying pre-existing information that confers a benefit to an organism. For example a loss of specificity to an enzyme may alter the diet allowing an organism to process a new 'food'. It is wild pseudo-scientific extrapolation to suggest that is evidence that nature can create and design wings. Empirical evidence shows the exact opposite of your beliefs. We have seen 'nature' alter or destroy good wing design...never create.
redfern said:
“Synergistic epistasis”....is also a term that you (and Sanford) have long denigrated as just a “rescue” device.
If you suggest that synergistic epistasis can overcome the vast number of deleterious mutations and improve our genome... Then you will find many, perhaps even many secular geneticists rejecting that idea. Synergistic epistasis is simply one of many rescue devices proposed by secularists trying to make evidence fit their beliefs. (Additive model, multiplicative model various types of epistasis and more)
redfern said:
In spite of your failed search, Sanford does use “rescue devices” one time in the copy of his book I have – in Chapter 11.
Awesome! Can you provide the quote with context, the book name and the page number? (I can then cite him)
redfern said:
In the world of real science, the word “vestigial” is exactly the right word, referring to an organ which no longer performs its original purpose.
Your false belief system regarding vestigial has already been noted ...and has nothing to do with the useless argument evolutionists made about the appendix. If you claim non functionality is evidence against a designer, then it logically follows that functionality can be considered as evidence for a designer.

BTW...'Real science' has disproven almost everything evolutionists once said re 'vestigial'. It is non falsifiable 'theology' and not science.
Redfern said:
If there are fundamental errors in secular science, then wouldn’t it be more productive to demonstrate those failings rather than to form a little side clique that refuses to publish opposing technical papers?
Of course.... Why don't you try and convince the publishers of secular journals to stop worrying about profits, and how many subscribers they have? You seem to have the mistaken belief that they are only concerned about science and not about profits. How about you even get a secular journal such as 'Theoretical and Applied Genetics' to get a Biblical creationist geneticist to even act as a peer reviewer on any article dealing with Origins?
You seem unaware of your own bias, and it's easy to show the bias that subscribers of secular journals have when something gets printed that even hints at a common designer.
 

Stripe

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So yeah, Einstein proved c was STILL a constant, IN THE NEW RELATIVITISTIC SYSTEM he was proposing. And the equations he used were the simplest ones that conclusively established that.

:chuckle:

We are talking about relativity, it'd be unsettling if we weren't looking at a proof for it.

And if that proof actually failed?

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Stripe

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Why do you ask “If it failed”? The proof is right there in the paper you linked to. Either show where it failed, or go play cat and mouse with someone else.
We're playing puppies, remember?

I like to keep my half of the conversation brief, because what I have to present is easy to comprehend, but not easy to accept.

And that is not to say I don't appreciate your verbosity. I love reading about the history of science, so your input is very welcome.

My question is: What if Einstein's proof failed. What would that mean for physics?

I can explain how I think it did fail, but that works better when both of us are actually interested in the repercussions, which my question delves into.

If you're not interested, just ignore me. :up:

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redfern

Active member
My question is: What if Einstein's proof failed. What would that mean for physics?

I can explain how I think it did fail, but that works better when both of us are actually interested in the repercussions, which my question delves into.

I am only interested to the extent that you actually can prove that Einstein’s proof failed. If you can prove that, the repercussions would be similar to me proving that Taiwan does not actually exist, which I think would be of some interest to you. But if you just want to play “what if games”, when the best you have done is to suggest you have some mysterious disproof of his ideas, then count me out.
 

Stripe

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The repercussions would be similar to me proving that Taiwan does not actually exist.

Well, that demonstrates how committed you are to a bit of math; you hold it in higher regard than an actual nation.

If Einstein's translated equation maps onto a sphere, then every point that satisfies it will have the same radius.

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redfern

Active member
If Einstein's translated equation maps onto a sphere, then every point that satisfies it will have the same radius.

Ok, you have made a statement. If you can show that leads to falsifying Einstein’s proof, then do it. l have zero interest in prodding you to take baby steps towards that disproof. If I see all the steps that lead to a credible disproof, I will acknowledge it. Till then, bye bye.
 

Stripe

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Ok, you have made a statement. If you can show that leads to falsifying Einstein’s proof, then do it. l have zero interest in prodding you to take baby steps towards that disproof. If I see all the steps that lead to a credible disproof, I will acknowledge it. Till then, bye bye.
These Darwinists love their farewells, huh? :chuckle:

Einstein's translated formula has four variables that use unprintable — no, perhaps "difficult to reproduce" would be a better way to describe them — characters.

He claims that the formula is for a sphere centered on zero, which is trivially so.

However, it is also trivially so that the components of the translated equation cannot have the same radii.

For example, the first two terms — the funny-looking E thing and the n with a long tail — return x-vt over √ 1 - v^2 over c^2 for the first and y for the second.

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redfern

Active member
These Darwinists love their farewells, huh? :chuckle:

Einstein's translated formula has four variables that use unprintable — no, perhaps "difficult to reproduce" would be a better way to describe them — characters.

He claims that the formula is for a sphere centered on zero, which is trivially so.

However, it is also trivially so that the components of the translated equation cannot have the same radii.

For example, the first two terms — the funny-looking E thing and the n with a long tail — return x-vt over √ 1 - v^2 over c^2 for the first and y for the second.

The four funny-looking symbols are the lower-case forms of the Greek letters chi, eta, zeta, and tau, respectively. The first three are the Cartesian coordinates (x, y, and z) as measured in the relativistic framework, with that framework having a velocity in the positive x-direction. The fourth term is a factor in the radius of the expanding wave.

Now in respect to your last sentence – so what? What would you expect those terms to look like for them to be valid? I suspect what you are thinking is that first term is much more complicated than either the second or third terms. But remember, there is no motion in either the y or the z directions, so they are essentially the same as the y and z of an expanding wave in a Newtonian Frame of reference. But Einstein showed very near the start of his paper that distances in the x direction are going to be foreshortened by exactly the square root term you described in your last sentence. (That square root term is the Lorentz Transformation). Therefore, in the relativistic framework the Lorentz Transformation must be applied to the x term.

Visualize that expanding spherical wave from two vantage points. The first is from the view of a stationary observer who watches the expanding wavefront from a flash of light emitted from a really fast-moving train. The y and z (up/down and left/right) components will look normal, forming a circle as they expand. But the x component will appear to be squashed down a little, since a kilometer along x in the reference frame of the stationary observer will appear to be compressed into what looks to be distinctly less than a kilometer. But the fellow riding on that train will himself be “compressed” (perhaps foreshortened would be a better word) by exactly the same amount as the x-component of the wave, as will any measuring tool that he is carrying. So he will see, and measure the “x” component of the expanding wave to be the same as the y and z components of the wave.

I hope I haven’t misjudged your way of looking at the situation. If still not clear – let me know.
 

Stripe

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I hope I haven’t misjudged your way of looking at the situation. If still not clear – let me know.

It's not unclear to me what Einstein's idea was, so explaining the equations is not going to change much.

The lack of clarity will be in my ability to explain where the problem — if there is one — lies.

Now in respect to your last sentence – so what? What would you expect those terms to look like for them to be valid?

They can look exactly as they do. The problem is, they don't describe a spherical wave.

Chi, eta and zeta cannot deliver coordinates of the same radius. Einstein's "spherical wave proof" is an ellipsoidal wave proof.
 

redfern

Active member
Einstein's "spherical wave proof" is an ellipsoidal wave proof.


As I explained in my prior post, it looks like and actually is an ellipsoidal wave from the viewpoint of a non-moving observer. But from the relativistic viewpoint – traveling with the wave source - the expanding wavefront is exactly spherical. That is what the math shows.
 

Stripe

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As I explained in my prior post, it looks like and actually is an ellipsoidal wave from the viewpoint of a non-moving observer. But from the relativistic viewpoint – traveling with the wave source - the expanding wavefront is exactly spherical. That is what the math shows.
No. The math shows that the components of the translated equation — chi, eta and zeta — return coordinates of varying radii.

It is trivially so that the untranslated equation gives a sphere, and it is trivially so that the translated equation is for a sphere. However, it is not enough to look at the form of the equation while ignoring the variables. In this case, the variables return an ellipsoid, not a sphere, as claimed.

It looks like and actually is an ellipsoidal wave from the viewpoint of a non-moving observer.
Really? So if a guy is standing still and watches a sphere of light expand in a moving frame, it will look like an ellipsoid?

Are you sure?
 

redfern

Active member
No. The math shows that the components of the translated equation — chi, eta and zeta — return coordinates of varying radii.

It is trivially so that the untranslated equation gives a sphere, and it is trivially so that the translated equation is for a sphere. However, it is not enough to look at the form of the equation while ignoring the variables. In this case, the variables return an ellipsoid, not a sphere, as claimed.

Tell you what. Since you are struggling a bit with using math to prove your point, I will suggest a new approach.

Equations are just handy tools for expressing relationships between numbers. To show that an equation is incorrect, one simple way is often to actually plug in specific numbers and show the actual result is not what the equation said it would be. In the case we are talking about, how about you find a single example using real numbers that shows the radii are not equal?

Really? So if a guy is standing still and watches a sphere of light expand in a moving frame, it will look like an ellipsoid?

Are you sure?

I am tempted to say – “Yeah, I have often run out with a meter stick and measured the dimensions of the wavefront as a train passes by. I find them to usually be out of round by one ten-billionth of an inch.“ But seriously, yeah, I am sure – for several reasons. First is that the equations we are talking about are fundamental to the correct operation of lots of scientific gadgets, as well as being fundamental to the correct operation of your GPS navigation unit that you have in your car. Second is that this exact paper has been examined in excruciating detail for over a century by literally tens of thousands of physicists and mathematicians. And from the day this paper was published, right up until today there have been droves of people trying to find a fundamental error in it. The math in the paper is pretty much humdrum stuff. The radical idea in it is just the assumption that the speed of light really is constant for all observers, no matter what Newton says.

And, as now been made explicit, the wavefronts expanding from a moving light source do really honest to gosh expand out in a spherical ellipsoid, yet those very same wavefronts do really honest to gosh expand out in a perfect sphere. The difference in those apparently contradictory claims is because the geometry of space (and time) is determined by the relative motion of the stationary and the moving observer.

And, puppy is fine, but Taiwan doesn’t exist.
 

Stripe

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Let me try an example:

Assume a spherical wave emanating from 0,0,0 in a stationary frame at 299,792,458m/s (lightspeed). After 1 second, we will have a sphere of 1m radius given the untranslated first equation in this image:


6066ffb70e52382244ad529c722491d2.jpg



where x,y and z are Cartesian coordinates and ct is the time-dependent radius.

So six points, one on each axis, will be at 1,0,0; -1,0,0; 0,1,0; 0,-1,0; 0,0,1; and 0,0,-1, which is obviously a sphere.

However the translated second equation is for a moving frame traveling at, say, 289 million meters per second (just under lightspeed).

The constants in the translated equation — chi, eta and zeta — are defined according to these equations:


e6a6aabaea053e3849b87679d4494bd2.jpg



Working that out puts the six points at 0.1,0,0; -7.4,0,0; -3.6,1,0; -3.6,-1,0; -3.6,0,1; -3.6,0,1.

You might want to check the working, but it should be obvious that this is not a sphere.

Source for images.

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Last edited:

Stripe

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Tell you what. Since you are struggling a bit with using math to prove your point, I will suggest a new approach.Equations are just handy tools for expressing relationships between numbers. To show that an equation is incorrect, one simple way is often to actually plug in specific numbers and show the actual result is not what the equation said it would be. In the case we are talking about, how about you find a single example using real numbers that shows the radii are not equal?
:yawn:

Way ahead of you, mate.

I am tempted to say – “Yeah, I have often run out with a meter stick and measured the dimensions of the wavefront as a train passes by. I find them to usually be out of round by one ten-billionth of an inch.“ But seriously, yeah, I am sure – for several reasons. First is that the equations we are talking about are fundamental to the correct operation of lots of scientific gadgets, as well as being fundamental to the correct operation of your GPS navigation unit that you have in your car. Second is that this exact paper has been examined in excruciating detail for over a century by literally tens of thousands of physicists and mathematicians. And from the day this paper was published, right up until today there have been droves of people trying to find a fundamental error in it. The math in the paper is pretty much humdrum stuff. The radical idea in it is just the assumption that the speed of light really is constant for all observers, no matter what Newton says.

And, as now been made explicit, the wavefronts expanding from a moving light source do really honest to gosh expand out in a spherical ellipsoid, yet those very same wavefronts do really honest to gosh expand out in a perfect sphere. The difference in those apparently contradictory claims is because the geometry of space (and time) is determined by the relative motion of the stationary and the moving observer.
So you think a spherical wave in a moving frame will look like an ellipsoid to a stationary man?

Perhaps I didn't make it clear that this is a light wave.

Taiwan doesn’t exist.

:rotfl:

Hiroshima didn't exist. Ka-bloomba.

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