ECT 2 Thess 2:1-2 proves the rapture theory wrong.

Danoh

New member
Correct, that's crazy



Not crazy.

Example:

(1 Chron 29:23 KJV) Then Solomon sat on the throne of the LORD as king instead of David his father, and prospered; and all Israel obeyed him.

(1 Kings 2:12 KJV) Then sat Solomon upon the throne of David his father; and his kingdom was established greatly.


Same throne, two different descriptions.

Now it's your turn.

Please show me two verses that use the exact same phrase to describe two completely different events?

Yo; Jerry Shugart twin; you've changed the subject toward what you are really up to through baiting once more.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
How is the day of the Lord (Prophecy) equal to the day of Christ (Mystery)?

Why is it that you expect me to answer your questions, but you won't answer my questions?

Why do you keep asking me questions?

I thought you said you weren't going to answer any more of my questions?

You need to make up your mind Danoh.
 

Danoh

New member
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tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Context does not matter, I suppose.

Context matters.

Paul didn't use the exact same phrase "The coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" to describe two different events.

Read the rest of the Thessalonian letters. Paul doesn't go back and forth talking about a rapture and the second coming of Christ.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Yo; Jerry Shugart twin; you've changed the subject toward what you are really up to through baiting once more.

What I'm up to is trying to understand how you MADists can claim the phrase "The coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" refers to two completely different events in the following two verses to the Thessalonians:

(1 Thess 3:13 KJV) To the end he may stablish your hearts unblameable in holiness before God, even our Father, at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ with all his saints.

(2 Thess 2:1) Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Good idea. You cannot read them and believe they were appointed to wrath.

They weren't appointed to wrath.

(1 Thess 5:9) For God hath not appointed us to wrath, but to obtain salvation by our Lord Jesus Christ,

The wrath was to come to the unbelieving Jews in Judah.

Thessaloníki is in Greece.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
:chuckle:

(2 Thess 2:7) For the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so till he is taken out of the way.

Paul wrote to the Thessalonians around 52-53AD.

Claudius was the emperor of Rome, but Nero had already begun influencing the Roman Empire. A few months after Paul's letter to the Thessalonians, Nero became emperor.
 

Danoh

New member
What I'm up to is trying to understand how you MADists can claim the phrase "The coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" refers to two completely different events in the following two verses to the Thessalonians:

(1 Thess 3:13 KJV) To the end he may stablish your hearts unblameable in holiness before God, even our Father, at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ with all his saints.

(2 Thess 2:1) Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,

Here, let me help you with that - understand all you were proven incompetent in years ago in the link below, and your need to distort passages such as those two will no longer be an issue :chuckle:

http://theologyonline.com/showthrea...tai-Questions-the-Mid-Acts-View-Cannot-Answer

Of course, in the unlikely event of that miracle, you can then continue to bait others as the new Mid-Acts Jerry :chuckle:
 
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tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Here, let me help you with that - understand all you were proven incompetent in years ago in the link below, and your need to distort passages such as those two will no longer be an issue :chuckle:

http://theologyonline.com/showthread...-Cannot-Answer

Of course, in the likely event of that miracle, you can then continue to bait others as the new Mid-Acts Jerry :chuckle:

"The coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" does not refer to two completely different events in the letters to the Thessalonians.

Only Darby followers claim such nonsense.

That's what Darby followers attempt to do in order to try and make the false teachings of John Nelson Darby fit the Bible.

Dispensationalism is a mess.
 

ClimateSanity

New member
It's the same thing

(1 Thess 5:2 KJV) For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.

"The Day of the Lord" and "The coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" are the same thing.

You're claiming "The coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" refers to two completely different events.

The day of the Lord is an overarching term. It includes all events of the last days including the return of Christ.
 
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