ARCHIVE: Will You Be Celebrating Christmas?

ARCHIVE: Will You Be Celebrating Christmas?

  • Yes

    Votes: 87 81.3%
  • No

    Votes: 20 18.7%

  • Total voters
    107

Sozo

New member
Originally posted by Hilston

How do you define "religious"?
Any attempt to appease God through actions. Or any attempt to end one's immoral behavior through systematic application, rather than total dependence on God's provision.
Why do you exchange gifts?
Technically, I don't. I just give them, and sometimes I get them.
 

Nathon Detroit

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Originally posted by Frank Ernest
Oh, well, at my age they say the mind is the :second: thing to go.
No one remembers what the :first: thing is.
:chuckle:

Oh.. and thanks for the kind words!
 

Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
Originally posted by STONE
By one being a diligent student of 'Israel's gospel' does that mean one follows and observes the 'earthly messiah's teachings'?
No. If the Body of Christ is going to adminstrate over the affairs of the created order with Christ, it behoves us to know and understand the scriptures of all dispensational households.

Originally posted by STONE
Regarding Paul's distinct and exclusive teachings please consider this:

"Go thy way: for he (Paul) is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel: For I will shew him how great things he must suffer for my name’s sake."
That's an excellent verse that shows that Paul had a dual ministry. Paul honors Israel's gospel when appropriate. He is seen circumcising Timothy, keeping vows, symbolically shaving his head, sponsoring the rituals for new proselytes, offering sacrifices in the Temple and being found ceremonially pure.

Originally posted by STONE
"And when there had been much disputing, Peter rose up, and said unto them, Men and brethren, ye know how that a good while ago God made choice among us, that the Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel, and believe. And God, which knoweth the hearts, bare them witness, giving them the Holy Ghost, even as he did unto us; And put no difference between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith. Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples, which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear?"
Peter is not talking about the Body of Christ. He is talking about the elect of the Nations. Notice that they enforce food restrictions. These are forbidden for the Body of Christ (Col 2). This again is part of Paul's dual ministry. On the one hand, he is the apostle for the Body of Christ, the dispenser of the Mystery Gospel. On the other hand, he is chosen by God to confirm the promises to Israel.

For more information on proselytes, see the following link: Two Types of Proselytes.
 

Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
Hilston asked: How do you define "religious"?

Originally posted by Sozo
Any attempt to appease God through actions. Or any attempt to end one's immoral behavior through systematic application, rather than total dependence on God's provision.
That is the most asinine definition I've seen of religion EVER. The word religion is used in the following verses: Ac 26:5 Ga 1:13,14 Jas 1:26,27. Does your definition apply to these verses?

Hilston asked: Why do you exchange gifts?

Originally posted by Sozo
Technically, I don't. I just give them, and sometimes I get them.
OK, why do you give gifts on Christ-Mass?
 

STONE

New member
Originally posted by Hilston
Peter is not talking about the Body of Christ. He is talking about the elect of the Nations. Notice that they enforce food restrictions. These are forbidden for the Body of Christ (Col 2). This again is part of Paul's dual ministry. On the one hand, he is the apostle for the Body of Christ, the dispenser of the Mystery Gospel. On the other hand, he is chosen by God to confirm the promises to Israel.
I am not sure how you are relating that Paul and Peter had distinct gospels and ministries as the verses I provided can be seen to contradict that. Further in Acts 15 it is blatantly clear that Peter and Paul agreed on the same Gospel, and that Gospel being without requirement of ordinances.
 

Sozo

New member
Originally posted by Hilston

Hilston asked: How do you define "religious"?

That is the most asinine definition I've seen of religion EVER. The word religion is used in the following verses: Ac 26:5 Ga 1:13,14 Jas 1:26,27. Does your definition apply to these verses?

Hilston asked: Why do you exchange gifts?

OK, why do you give gifts on Christ-Mass?
How does my definition disgree with the verses in Acts and Galatians?

James is telling them something that affirms what should define religion in it's purest sense, but no one can keep themselves unstained from the world.

I give gifts on Christmas because it's around the time when most of the stores are having their big sales.
 

STONE

New member
Originally posted by STONE
By one being a diligent student of 'Israel's gospel' does that mean one follows and observes the 'earthly messiah's teachings'?
Originally posted by Hilston
No. If the Body of Christ is going to adminstrate over the affairs of the created order with Christ, it behoves us to know and understand the scriptures of all dispensational households.
I've considered the statement you made above and it concerns me.

"If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness; He is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, whereof cometh envy, strife, railings, evil surmisings" (1 Tim 6:3,4)
 

STONE

New member
Originally posted by Hilston
That's an excellent verse that shows that Paul had a dual ministry. Paul honors Israel's gospel when appropriate. He is seen circumcising Timothy, keeping vows, symbolically shaving his head, sponsoring the rituals for new proselytes, offering sacrifices in the Temple and being found ceremonially pure.

Also here regarding the apostolic ministry:
"Therefore whether it were I or they (the apostles), so we preach, and so ye believed." (Paul to the Corinthians- 1 Cor 5:10)
 

Hilston

Active member
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STONE writes:
I am not sure how you are relating that Paul and Peter had distinct gospels and ministries as the verses I provided can be seen to contradict that.
The verses you quoted show that Paul honored Israel's gospel, ministered to Israel's elect, and confirmed the promises to that chosen nation. The difference between Paul's and Peter's gospels is taught throughout Paul's epistles. Have you read any of the links I've included in these posts? The papers are not that long, and they would answer these questions for you. Here is one again: The Seven Ones

STONE writes:
Further in Acts 15 it is blatantly clear that Peter and Paul agreed on the same Gospel, ...
Of course! Christ's kingdom apostles (Peter and the Eleven) would agree with Christ's Body apostles (Paul, Epaphroditus, et al). Paul kept Passover when he went to Jerusalem, just as Peter ate pork when he went to Antioch. It's a mutual respect for each other's distinctive gospel content (Gal 2:7).

STONE writes:
... and that Gospel being without requirement of ordinances.
This isn't true. What Paul and Barnabas delivered to the elect Gentiles was a letter affirming the Gentile ordinances. Did you read the link I sent in the previous post. It's not very long and it would answer these questions for you. Here it is again: Two Kinds of Proselytes

Hilston wrotes:No. If the Body of Christ is going to adminstrate over the affairs of the created order with Christ, it behoves us to know and understand the scriptures of all dispensational households.

STONE writes:
I've considered the statement you made above and it concerns me.

"If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness; He is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, whereof cometh envy, strife, railings, evil surmisings" (1 Tim 6:3,4)
Of course it concerns you, because it is contrary to you believe. Everybody under the sun who cares about doctrine is going to think this verse gives sufficient grounds to dismiss every doctrine different from their own, just as you may think this verse gives you grounds to dismiss my doctrine. Now that we have this out of the way, perhaps we can actually discuss the content of what Paul is talking about in this passage?

STONE writes:
Also here regarding the apostolic ministry:
"Therefore whether it were I or they (the apostles), so we preach, and so ye believed." (Paul to the Corinthians- 1 Cor 5:10)
Your reference is incorrect. It should be 1Co 15:11.

It's appropriate that you would quote this passage, because it, too, demonstrates the distinctions between Paul's and Peter's gospels. Notice how the first part of chapter 15 describes the historical sequence of revelation of Messiah to Israel and her apostles (Peter et al). Notice how Paul distinguishes himself from them, not only by setting himself apart as the "last of all", but as one "born too early" (v. 8). You might have a case if Paul had claimed to be "born too late" (i.e. after the resurrection and ascension of Christ). But the Greek word means "abortioned." He was born too early, meaning, he was born at a time when Israel's gospel and the Body gospel overlapped, rather than being born later at a point when Israel's gospel had fully waned.

Not only this, but notice the fact that Paul, not only recognizes himself as being apart from them in history, but when he is converted, he avoids their instruction. Instead of receiving instruction regarding the gospel via the proper chain of revelation (from the "sent ones" who preceded him), he goes off into the desert to be personally tutored by the risen glorified Christ for three years (Gal 1, 2Co 12). For what possible reason would an apostle of Christ (Paul) avoid the instruction of the apostles who preceded him, unless he were being given something that had been previously hidden, held in silence, not revealed any time previously to anyone? And that is exactly how Paul describes his gospel: Held in silence, previously hidden, the Mystery, not revealed to the prophets (Ro 11:25 16:25,26 1Co 2:7 Eph 1:9 3:3-9 5:32 6:19 Col 1:26,27 2:2 4:3 1Ti 3:9,16).

For more detail regarding the difference between Paul's and Peter's gospels, see the following: Galatians 2: Two Gospels or Two Audiences?

The verse you quoted is in the context of Paul's boast/humility. On the one hand he points out his unworthiness to be an apostle because of persecuting the church of God (i.e. elect Israel). Whereas on the other hand, he boasted that he labored more than the Twelve (yet another distinction consonant with the distinctive gospel with which Paul was commissioned). And then to put it all in perspective, he attributes his success to the grace of God. That is to say, it's all of God, that Paul is nothing. Thus, "whether I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed," in other words, by the grace of God. THAT is Paul's point; not, as you are suggesting, that all the distinctions made here and elsewhere are suddenly not distinctions (!).
 
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Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
Sozo writes:
How does my definition disgree with the verses in Acts and Galatians?

Ac 13:43 Now when the congregation was broken up, many of the Jews and religious proselytes followed Paul and Barnabas: who, speaking to them, persuaded them to continue in the grace of God.

Is Ac 13:43 talking about proselytes who were attempting to "appease God through actions, or to end one's immoral behavior through systematic application, rather than total dependence on God's provision?

Ac 26:5 Which knew me from the beginning, if they would testify, that after the most straitest sect of our religion I lived a Pharisee.

Is Paul talking about a religion that taught people to "appease God through actions, or to end one's immoral behavior through systematic application, rather than total dependence on God's provision?"

Ga 1:13 For ye have heard of my conversation in time past in the Jews' religion, how that beyond measure I persecuted the church of God, and wasted it: 14 And profited in the Jews' religion above many my equals in mine own nation, being more exceedingly zealous of the traditions of my fathers.

Is Paul talking about a religion that taught people to "appease God through actions, or to end one's immoral behavior through systematic application, rather than total dependence on God's provision?"

Jas 1:26 If any man among you seem to be religious, and bridleth not his tongue, but deceiveth his own heart, this man's religion is vain. 27 Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world.

By your definition, James is describing the pure "appeasement of God through actions" and the pure "end [of] one's immoral behavior through systematic application, rather than total dependence on God's provision."

I don't know where you got that definition, but it sounds more like an editorial than something that is actually useful in communication. And that is what is annoying. All this time you've had a definition in mind that is contrary to normative usage, and that disgusts me. Here is a dictionary definition that is suitable for what I've been describing:

religion: the service and worship of God or the supernatural
religious: relating to or manifesting faithful devotion to an acknowledged ultimate reality or deity.

Can you agree with this definition?

Sozo writes:
I give gifts on Christmas because it's around the time when most of the stores are having their big sales.
Sozo, on this planet, the big sales come after Christmas. Everyone reading this knows your answer is a fabrication. So what's the real answer, Sozo? Why do you give gifts on Christmas?
 

Sozo

New member
Originally posted by Hilston

Ac 13:43 Now when the congregation was broken up, many of the Jews and religious proselytes followed Paul and Barnabas: who, speaking to them, persuaded them to continue in the grace of God.

Is Ac 13:43 talking about proselytes who were attempting to "appease God through actions, or to end one's immoral behavior through systematic application, rather than total dependence on God's provision?
Yes! Absolutely! The Jews believed that righteousness came through the Law. They believed that their actions (rituals, ceremonies, moral fortitude) made them acceptable.

Ac 26:5 Which knew me from the beginning, if they would testify, that after the most straitest sect of our religion I lived a Pharisee.

Is Paul talking about a religion that taught people to "appease God through actions, or to end one's immoral behavior through systematic application, rather than total dependence on God's provision?"
See above.

Ga 1:13 For ye have heard of my conversation in time past in the Jews' religion, how that beyond measure I persecuted the church of God, and wasted it: 14 And profited in the Jews' religion above many my equals in mine own nation, being more exceedingly zealous of the traditions of my fathers.

Is Paul talking about a religion that taught people to "appease God through actions, or to end one's immoral behavior through systematic application, rather than total dependence on God's provision?"
See above.

Here is a dictionary definition that is suitable for what I've been describing:

religion: the service and worship of God or the supernatural
religious: relating to or manifesting faithful devotion to an acknowledged ultimate reality or deity.

Can you agree with this definition?

The dictionary also says this:

To resolve to end one's immoral behavior.

James was well aware of the religion that persecuted those who had accepted Jesus as Messiah. He was telling those who had suffered persecution that "pure" religion would visit widows and orphans, and it would also keep itself unstained by the world, which James knew was impossible, and he says this to prove that their (the persecuters) religion is worthless.


Why do you give gifts on Christmas?
Why does it matter?
 

gabriel

New member
Originally posted by granite1010

"Celebrating Christmas, Easter, Passover, Sabbaths, Ramadan, Hanukah, etc. or any religious holiday is violation of Paul's gospel, just as is water baptism, and for the very same reasons."

...and I would love to be there while you explain to a Muslim how he's violating the gospel of Paul by celebrating Ramadan.:D

I thought Paul warned his followers from senseless bickering. Which goes to show how often this injunction is adhered to.

Christians--taking the Christ out of Christmas since 2004! What a bunch of nuts. You people can't even agree to celebrate the birth of your savior on the day your church has traditionally observed it for centuries. And you expect everyone else to listen to you, get with the program, and accept Jesus. On this subject the legalists on this thread have more in common with Jehovah's Witnesses than mainstream Christianity.

What a zoo.

:chuckle:
 

Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
Originally posted by Sozo
Yes! Absolutely! The Jews believed that righteousness came through the Law. They believed that their actions (rituals, ceremonies, moral fortitude) made them acceptable.
Where do you get this idea?

Please read the following paper. It will help to clarify your confusion about grace in the Jewish dispensation.

Pauline Law and Justification

Hilston wrote:
"Here is a dictionary definition that is suitable for what I've been describing:

religion: the service and worship of God or the supernatural
religious: relating to or manifesting faithful devotion to an acknowledged ultimate reality or deity.

Can you agree with this definition?"


Sozo writes:
The dictionary also says this:

To resolve to end one's immoral behavior.
OK, fine, but I'm looking at primary definitions; not obscure non-normative ones. I'm asking if you will agree with the primary definition. If not, I will try to find a better word to describe what I'm talking about.

Hilston asked: Why do you give gifts on Christmas?

Originally posted by Sozo
Why does it matter?
You made the claim that you celebrated Christmas in a non-religious way. I'm trying to find out if that's true or not.
 

Yorzhik

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Originally posted by Yorzhik
Can you give an example wherein the act is not always wrong. For instance, prostitution is always wrong, and sacrificing to idols is always wrong. However, celebrating the anniversary of someone's birth is not always wrong.
Originally posted by Hilston
You've not being careful here, Yorzhik. The answer to your question is within the very examples you gave.
  • Sexual behavior is not always wrong. But prostitution is.
  • Killing animals for food is not always wrong. But sacrificing to idols is.
  • Celebrating the anniversary of someone's birth is not always wrong. But celebrating Christ-Mass is.
I'm sorry, I was unclear. I meant; can you give us an example wherein the act is not always wrong through all dispensations. But that is neither here nor there at this point. If we find in scripture the same kind of prohibition against ceremonies like Christmas that we find against prostitution or murder (prostitution/murder/stealing/sacrificing to idols are actively prohibited across all dispensations), then everything you've said so far would be obvious. So we need to dig into the passages you say provide the emphatic, unequivocal, and strict command.

You've cited, and I've read from tgfonline the same, passages from Gal 4, and Col 2 to support that Christmas is a Body-of-Christ law of prohibition. I was just curious about the Greek construction that is used here, so I asked Tim McMahon about the Col 2:16 (Tim also touches on Gal 4:8-11). Here is what he had to say (and, BTW, I thought the question might get 2 paragraphs… I was wrong):
The grammatical form in Colossians 2:16 is a third-person imperative, for which we don't have a precise equivalent in English. It's actually a command addressed to a third party. The closest we can come in English is "Let no one judge" or "May no one judge" (although the latter is more normally used to render a similar but not identical Greek construction). So, technically, Paul isn't telling the Colossians to do (or not do) anything. He's telling other people not to judge them in what they're doing.

Of course, the technical sense of a third-person imperative is a bit esoteric. It isn't like the people who might take it upon themselves to judge the Colossian believers are hanging out listening while this epistle is being read to the congregation. So what we're after here is Paul's underlying intention toward the church, what he wants them to do with regard to the judgment of others against them on this issue.

[The idea] that Paul is commanding the Colossians not to do anything that would give anyone else an occasion to judge them is interesting -- and would make for a good sermon -- but I don't believe the NT usage of the third-person imperative bears that out. Here are a few examples:

Romans 14:3. Let him who eats [meat offered to idols] not despise the one who doesn't eat and let him who doesn't eat not judge the one who eats, for the Lord has received him. This couldn't be a command to the subject, because Paul takes for granted that the subject is doing what the other person is judging or despising. This must be a command to the third parties.

Romans 15:2. Let each one of us please his neighbor for good with a view to edification. This is a command to the subject ('each of us') to be good to others, not a command for others to act in such a way as to induce us to do them good.

1 Corinthians 7:12. If a brother has an unbelieving wife who consents to dwell with him, let him not leave her. This is a command to the believing husband not to divorce his wife, not a command to the non-Christian wife not to induce her Christian husband to leave her.

1 Corinthians 14:37. If anyone considers himself to be a prophet or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things I am writing are the Lord's commands. Paul is commanding the subject to acknowledge the divine origin of his teaching, not commanding his teaching to make its divine origin evident to the subject.

Galatians 6:17. Henceforth let no one give me any trouble. Paul is commanding his opponents to stop troubling him, not commanding himself not to act in such a way as to invite trouble.

Now there are some examples where the third-person imperative is more of a literary device to convey a command to the readers rather than literally a command issued to a third party. When Hebrews 13:1 says, "Let love continue," it can hardly be construed as a command issued to "love"; by clear implication this is a command to the recipients of the epistle to facilitate love's continuance. And I would understand this on a secondary level in our passage: the Colossians should not act gratuitously in such a way as to invite judgment. Yet, no matter how one acts, judgment is inevitable. Certainly it was not due to anything remiss on His part that our Lord Jesus was judged as a glutton and a drunkard. The primary sense of Paul's third-person imperative here is that others have no right to judge the Colossians regarding their observance of Torah-specific dietary and calendar laws -- or, more to the point, their non-observance of the same.

It's quite a jump from Colossians 2:16… to a blanket prohibition of any sort of seasonal observance. For the Colossians to fall into the idea that they must observe the feasts of the Torah in order to get saved, in order to remain saved, or even in order to elevate their spirituality is altogether contrary to Paul's teaching. Paul goes so far as to compare this to idolatry in Galatians 4:8-11. I would agree absolutely that obligatory observance of Torah festivals or other religious holidays is wrong. [The] prohibition of such observance is equally contrary to grace. The new dispensation of grace is all about freedom to worship God as we interact with His Spirit and with one another in the body. God hasn't taken us from "you must do this" to "you can't do this" but to "you may do this if you want to, with the proper motivation." As Paul says in Romans 14:5, "One esteems one day above another, while one esteems every day alike. Let each one be fully persuaded in his own mind." I don't know what else 'esteeming one day above another' could refer to besides the mo'adim (sacred times) of Torah, and the mo'ed par excellence, the sabbath. Paul envisions a Christian community in harmony not because we're all in lockstep with each other but because we respect each other's choices within the parameters of biblical morality. "Let no one judge you" goes both ways: no one has the right to judge your observance or non-observance as long as whichever approach you choose is done within a framework of grace rather than law.

An interesting question on this verse is, In which direction is Paul's command issued? Were the Colossians observing appointed times and being condemned by opponents for doing so, or were they not observing and being condemned for that? The preceding context extols the power of Christ's sacrifice in liberating us from the obligation to observe the law. On that basis, I would assume that the Colossians were not observing the mo'adim and were being hassled by Judaizers to do so, just as was the case in Galatia. Paul emphasized to the Colossians here not to allow themselves to be dragged under any sort of obligation that the legalists are trying to impose on them because it was from those very obligations that Christ's perfect sacrifice freed us If my reading of the scenario is correct, Paul couldn't possibly be telling the Colossians… "Don't incur the judgment of others by observing the feasts." If it's absolutely wrong to observe the feasts, why would Paul resort to such a secondary rationale of refraining from doing so in order not to give their opponents an occasion? Would he not simply say "Don’t observe (or, Stop observing) the feasts because Christ has fulfilled them"? Paul's concern is that the Judaizers are influencing the Colossians, just as they did the Galatians, to dilute the awesomeness of Christ by importing law observance into their understanding of justification and sanctification.

The ensuing context of Colossians 2 must be understood from this perspective. What would beguile the Colossians out of their reward is not grace-based participation in a Passover Seder (or attending a Christmas sing-a-long), but getting involved in such observance under the burden of perceiving it as necessary for their justification or their spirituality. That's what constitutes denying the headship of Christ -- not joyfully worshipping God as His Spirit leads, but falling into the trap of believing you must do these things in order to be saved or in order for God to love you. That's the danger of the "don't taste, don't touch" kind of religion [condemned] in v.23 -- not voluntarily abstaining, with full understanding of the issues involved, as Paul himself does on occasion (1 Corinthians 8:13), but doing so under the burden of fearing God's rejection if you don't.
So the 2 main points are that the command to abstain from religious ceremony is, at the very least, not "emphatically, unequivocally, and strictly" given. You shouldn't be so harsh with our interpretation of Col 2 or Gal 4 when you cannot delineate a clear command. And secondly, there is the message of the gospel of Grace.

The gospel of grace cannot have laws active for this dispensation only. That would be contrary to the gospel of grace. Whether it be a loss of salvation, or a loss of relationship (it doesn't matter), the law would not be based on our voluntary love for Jesus.

Originally posted by Hilston
People keep quoting this as if we should just throw all prohibitions out the window. Is it OK to steal if you're not under the law? Is it OK to commit adultery if you're not under the law? If not, then neither is it OK to celebrate Christmas if you're not under the law.
No, stealing and adultery are wrong across all dispensations. That gives us a clue that they are different. You are proposing that Paul introduced a new law just for the Body Believers, and that it is the same as the laws that are interdispensational.

Originally posted by Hilston
Paul didn't make them up, Yorzhik. These laws were held in silence, kept absolutely secret from the foundation of the world, designed and reserved specifically for the Body of Christ. This cannot be missed. Please see the following references: Ro 11:25 16:25,26 1Co 2:7 Eph 1:9 3:3-9 5:32 6:19 Col 1:26,27 2:2 4:3 1Ti 3:9,16. Paul receved the laws of the Mystery directly from the risen and glorified Christ Himself, in an unprecedented manner, apart from angelic mediation, apart from ritual, ceremony, symbolism, and holiday. That's the point. The Body of Christ, of which Paul was the charter member, has a heavenly hope, not an earthly one (as Israel and the nations). Therefore, we have direct, unmediated access to the Godhead. For Israel, they had many mediators, many priests, many intermediary steps in their worship (ceremony, symbolism, etc.). For the Body of Christ, there is but one Mediator between God and man: Christ Jesus Himself.
I wasn't saying the Body of Christ and how it functioned wasn't known by God and held as a mystery, it is that you are saying that a law that cannot naturally be known must be spelled out and explained so we can obey it in an age of grace. That just doesn't make sense. It would be natural for those who love their Savior to want to celebrate and talk about Him - even by making the event big by setting a time so as many people as possible can participate together. The only way to dissuade this behavior would be an emphatic prohibition against that natural order.

So if I can make one thing clear, it is that the prohibition isn't "emphatically, unequivocally, and strictly" given. Gal 4 and Col 2 don't support the emphatic interpretation that you see.
 

STONE

New member
Originally posted by Hilston
Your reference is incorrect. It should be 1Co 15:11.

It's appropriate that you would quote this passage, because it, too, demonstrates the distinctions between Paul's and Peter's gospels. Notice how the first part of chapter 15 describes the historical sequence of revelation of Messiah to Israel and her apostles (Peter et al). Notice how Paul distinguishes himself from them, not only by setting himself apart as the "last of all", but as one "born too early" (v. 8). You might have a case if Paul had claimed to be "born too late" (i.e. after the resurrection and ascension of Christ). But the Greek word means "abortioned." He was born too early, meaning, he was born at a time when Israel's gospel and the Body gospel overlapped, rather than being born later at a point when Israel's gospel had fully waned.
Hilston,
Thanks for getting back to me and for correcting the chapter and verse misprint.

I don't have much time right now but I looked into what you presented and can only say this now.
The greek word '1626' you are referring to as abortion is a combination of ek(out) and '5134' trauma (wounding, affliction) and is only used in scripture in this verse. Born is not even part of the word. Nor is it in context according to the passage. Possibly more likely he is referring to Jesus's persecution by Him rather than referring to himself as an abortion? The overlapping you are talking about it seems you are adding on.

I will go into this and your other points more when I have time.
 

Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
Yorzhik,

Let me preface this by saying I was encouraged to see that you brought Tim McMahon into this discussion. He has offered useful information and expertise in the past, and I was eager to see what he had to say about this current discussion. Unfortunately, I couldn't have been more disappointed and, frankly, annoyed by the ineptness of his analysis.

Yorzhik writes:
If we find in scripture the same kind of prohibition against ceremonies like Christmas that we find against prostitution or murder (prostitution/murder/stealing/sacrificing to idols are actively prohibited across all dispensations), then everything you've said so far would be obvious.
It isn't the same; it's a worse crime and harsher prohibition, precisely because dispensational sin is far more offensive to God than interdispensational or transdispensational sin. That's Paul point of saying HIS gospel will judge the men of this age (Ro 2:16). Men will be judged in a dispensationally specific way, according to a dispensationally specific standard of righteousness.

Tim McMahon writes:
The grammatical form in Colossians 2:16 is a third-person imperative, for which we don't have a precise equivalent in English. It's actually a command addressed to a third party.
This is a logical contradiction. You can't address a third party with a third-person imperative. It a command addressing a second party in a context that involves to third party. When a concern regarding the second party bears upon a third party, the imperative that pertains to the third party is indirectly, but no less emphatically, commanding the second party with respect to that concern. For example, when Jesus healed the blind men, and commanded them to make sure no one found out about it, He used the third-person imperative:

Mt 9:30 And their eyes were opened; and Jesus straitly charged them, saying, See that no man know it.

Now will you or Tim tell me that this wasn't a command? The text says Jesus charged them--the men He healed-- to "see that no man know it." The word "know" (ginosketo) is a third-person imperative. Do you or Tim want to claim that this was optional? That Jesus wasn't really giving a command because the imperative was in the third person? Do you want to see the rest of the occurrence of the third-person imperatives in scriptures? Examples just like that one are all over the place: Mt 9:30 11:15 13:9,43 15:4 16:24 19:6,12 24:15,17 Mr 4:9,23 7:10 Mr 7:16 8:34 10:9 13:14 Lu 3:11 8:8 9:23 14:35 Joh 7:37 12:26 14:27 Ac 2:36 Ro 6:12 14:3 15:2 1Co 3:10,18 7:2,3,11-13 7:17,20,21,24,36 1Co 10:12,24 11:28,34 14:27,28,30,37,38 16:2 Ga 6:4,6,17 Eph 4:26 4:28 5:6,33 Col 2:16,18 3:15,16 2Th 3:10 1Ti 2:11 4:12 5:16 Tit 2:15 Heb 13:1 Jas 1:4-6 1:13 5:13,20 1Pe 4:15,16 2Pe 3:8 1Jo 2:24 3:7 Re 22:17

Tim McMahon writes:
The closest we can come in English is "Let no one judge" or "May no one judge" (although the latter is more normally used to render a similar but not identical Greek construction). So, technically, Paul isn't telling the Colossians to do (or not do) anything. He's telling other people not to judge them in what they're doing.
No, he's not. If he were, he would have used the second-person imperative and specified to whom his command was intended. Paul giving the same kind of command to the Colossians that Jesus gave the healed blindmen in Mt. 9:30, for the same kind of linguistic effect.

Tim McMahon writes:
Of course, the technical sense of a third-person imperative is a bit esoteric.
No, it's not. I use the third-person imperative all the time, especially with my children: "Ethan, your sister will not scream about you pulling her hair anymore." A 6-year-old understands the third-person imperative. He knows that the mandate is directed at him, even though the imperative pertains to a third party.

Tim McMahon writes:
... It isn't like the people who might take it upon themselves to judge the Colossian believers are hanging out listening while this epistle is being read to the congregation.
Tim is overthinking this. It isn't so arcane.

Tim McMahon writes:
... So what we're after here is Paul's underlying intention toward the church, what he wants them to do with regard to the judgment of others against them on this issue.
I agree with that sentence.

Tim McMahon writes:
[The idea] that Paul is commanding the Colossians not to do anything that would give anyone else an occasion to judge them is interesting -- and would make for a good sermon -- but I don't believe the NT usage of the third-person imperative bears that out. Here are a few examples:

Romans 14:3. Let him who eats [meat offered to idols] not despise the one who doesn't eat and let him who doesn't eat not judge the one who eats, for the Lord has received him. This couldn't be a command to the subject, because Paul takes for granted that the subject is doing what the other person is judging or despising. This must be a command to the third parties.
Is he serious? He doesn't see that this is a command directed to all the saints at Rome, but stated in the third person? Could a Roman saint, reading this passage, actually say, "Paul obviously isn't talking to me, because he uses the third-person imperative, and I, as the reader, would be addressed with a second-person imperative." It's ridiculous, Yorzhik. I appears Tim's "much learning hath made [him] mad." Don't get me wrong, I'm not an obscurantist; I'm as interested in expanding my knowledge of details as the next guy. But when you can't see the forest AND the trees, you've got a major problem.

Tim McMahon writes:
Romans 15:2. Let each one of us please his neighbor for good with a view to edification. This is a command to the subject ('each of us') to be good to others, not a command for others to act in such a way as to induce us to do them good.
Why does Tim use this verse? It supports the use of the third-person imperative as a command of the subject in the same way I am arguing for Col 2:16.

Tim McMahon writes:
1 Corinthians 7:12. If a brother has an unbelieving wife who consents to dwell with him, let him not leave her. This is a command to the believing husband not to divorce his wife, not a command to the non-Christian wife not to induce her Christian husband to leave her.
Exactly! Thank you Tim for further buttressing my argument.

Tim McMahon writes:
1 Corinthians 14:37. If anyone considers himself to be a prophet or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things I am writing are the Lord's commands. Paul is commanding the subject to acknowledge the divine origin of his teaching, not commanding his teaching to make its divine origin evident to the subject.
Bingo.

Tim McMahon writes:
Galatians 6:17. Henceforth let no one give me any trouble. Paul is commanding his opponents to stop troubling him, not commanding himself not to act in such a way as to invite trouble.
Has anyone suggested or implied a first-person imperative?

Tim McMahon writes:
Now there are some examples where the third-person imperative is more of a literary device to convey a command to the readers rather than literally a command issued to a third party. When Hebrews 13:1 says, "Let love continue," it can hardly be construed as a command issued to "love";
Why is Tim wasting his time with these rudimentary explanations?

Tim McMahon writes:
... by clear implication this is a command to the recipients of the epistle to facilitate love's continuance.
Of course!!! Often imperatives are without an explicit subject, so it has to be supplied. Anyone with a basic understanding of grammar can usually tell the difference between the subject and the direct object or indirect object. So what's his point?

Tim McMahon writes:
... And I would understand this on a secondary level in our passage: the Colossians should not act gratuitously in such a way as to invite judgment.
He's missed the whole point. It was a matter of "inviting" judgment. For crying out loud, Yorzhik, it's what the Judaizers came to do: To regulate, to discriminate, to esteem, to distinguish, to judge men according to whether or not they complied with the Mosaic Law.

Tim McMahon writes:
Yet, no matter how one acts, judgment is inevitable.
No kidding. So obviously, Paul's intent was not to command the Judaizers to stop judging. Sheesh.

Tim McMahon writes:
... Certainly it was not due to anything remiss on His part that our Lord Jesus was judged as a glutton and a drunkard. The primary sense of Paul's third-person imperative here is that others have no right to judge the Colossians regarding their observance of Torah-specific dietary and calendar laws -- or, more to the point, their non-observance of the same.
Wrong wrong wrong. Good grief, Yorzhik, if Paul were making a statement about what the Judaizers had a right to do or not to do, he wouldn't have spent the bulk of this epistle (and Galatians) describing the reasoning for his prohibition of religious ceremony and holidays. He wouldn't have gotten in Peter's face in public about observing Jewish food laws.

Tim McMahon writes:
It's quite a jump from Colossians 2:16… to a blanket prohibition of any sort of seasonal observance. For the Colossians to fall into the idea that they must observe the feasts of the Torah in order to get saved, in order to remain saved, or even in order to elevate their spirituality is altogether contrary to Paul's teaching.
Of course it is, that's why he is prohibiting it. What an abject disappointment this entire post is, Yorzhik. Please, send my comments back to Tim and ask him to try again. He gets a big F as far as I'm concerned. Well maybe a D. No, on second thought: I'm sticking with the F.

Tim McMahon writes:
Paul goes so far as to compare this to idolatry in Galatians 4:8-11.
Interesting, isn't it, that Paul would equate biblical Jewish behavior with pagan ceremonialism. Why is that, Yorzhik? Could it be because Paul is saying to the members of the Body of Christ that ALL religious ceremony, whether the pagan stuff you came out of, or the Jewish stuff that entices you now, are tantamount to angel worship, and you must not do it.

Tim McMahon writes:
I would agree absolutely that obligatory observance of Torah festivals or other religious holidays is wrong.
Why? Jesus commanded the observance of Torah festivals after His death, entombment, and resurrection (Mt 28:19,20 cf. Mt 23:1-3). So on what grounds does Tim decry them?

Tim McMahon writes:
[The] prohibition of such observance is equally contrary to grace. The new dispensation of grace is all about freedom to worship God as we interact with His Spirit and with one another in the body.
I see. So elect Israel did not have the freedom to worship God as they interacted with other elect Jews?

Tim McMahon writes:
God hasn't taken us from "you must do this" to "you can't do this" but to "you may do this if you want to, with the proper motivation."
This is crap, Yorzhik. God was no less concerned about "proper motivation" under the Mosaic Law. Doesn't Tim recall the verses that say the sacrifices were a stench in God's nostrils because they were not brought with the "proper motivation"? Doesn't Tim recall the verses such as:

Isa 1:11 To what purpose is the multitude of your sacrifices unto me? saith the LORD: I am full of the burnt offerings of rams, and the fat of fed beasts; and I delight not in the blood of bullocks, or of lambs, or of he goats.

Pr 15:8 The sacrifice of the wicked is an abomination to the LORD: but the prayer of the upright is his delight.

Am 5:21 I hate, I despise your feast days, and I will not smell in your solemn assemblies.

Tim McMahon writes:
As Paul says in Romans 14:5, "One esteems one day above another, while one esteems every day alike. Let each one be fully persuaded in his own mind." I don't know what else 'esteeming one day above another' could refer to besides the mo'adim (sacred times) of Torah, and the mo'ed par excellence, the sabbath.
That's because the Roman and Corinthian assemblies had significant contingents of Jews that were to be respected and honored as the elect of that Nation. Romans 14, 1Co 8 and 10 cannot apply today, as there is no elect Israel before God and no surviving kingdom saints.

Tim McMahon writes:
Paul envisions a Christian community in harmony not because we're all in lockstep with each other but because we respect each other's choices within the parameters of biblical morality.
No one is suggesting a lockstep egalitarian uniform community. But Paul did say the Body of Christ should be of one mind, striving together for the faith of the gospel. That is, Paul's gospel, the gospel of the uncircumcision, the held-in-silence Mystery. (Ro 15:6 2Co 13:11 Php 1:27 2:2).

Tim McMahon writes:
"Let no one judge you" goes both ways: no one has the right to judge your observance or non-observance as long as whichever approach you choose is done within a framework of grace rather than law.
This is garbage. It emasculates the force, the brilliance, the beauty of Paul's commands to the Body of Christ. It dilutes the richness and poignancy of Paul's sternest warnings born out of the wonderful distinctions that Christ died to secure for the Body of Christ.

Tim McMahon writes:
An interesting question on this verse is, In which direction is Paul's command issued?
No, it's not interesting. It's sophistry. Try again.

Tim McMahon writes:
... Were the Colossians observing appointed times and being condemned by opponents for doing so, or were they not observing and being condemned for that?
IT'S OBVIOUS!!!! Good grief, man!!!

Tim McMahon writes:
The preceding context extols the power of Christ's sacrifice in liberating us from the obligation to observe the law. On that basis, I would assume that the Colossians were not observing the mo'adim and were being hassled by Judaizers to do so, just as was the case in Galatia.
Now was that so hard? Tim doesn't understand the ramifications of what Christ's sacrifice secured for the Body of Christ. It was NOT just freedom from the obligation to observe the law. It was removing from us the angelic authority that attended those observances by openly declaring, through the Mystery, this new and unprecedented group of God's elect, the Body of Christ, the subject of the Mystery, held in silence from the foundation of the world. The reason we are prohibited from religious ceremony is because such behavior would place us under the angelic realm, which Christ's sacrifice removed for us.

Tim McMahon writes:
Paul emphasized to the Colossians here not to allow themselves to be dragged under any sort of obligation that the legalists are trying to impose on them because it was from those very obligations that Christ's perfect sacrifice freed us ...
Wrong wrong wrong. Peter was no legalist, and neither were the men sent from James in Galatians 2. The Judaizers mistakenly thought the saved Gentiles, members of the Body of Christ, were to become proselytes of righteousness in order to serve Messiah. They were not imposing legalism, but rather the true gospel of Israel. It's just that they were trying to impose a different gospel (Israel's) in the wrong place, upon the wrong people.

Tim McMahon writes:
If my reading of the scenario is correct, ...
It's not. It's not even close.

Tim McMahon writes:
Paul couldn't possibly be telling the Colossians… "Don't incur the judgment of others by observing the feasts."
No one is saying that. Paul is telling them not to listen to those who would impose religious ceremony and holidays upon them. Not to be bewitched or enticed by them. Those who preach Christmas or water baptism are the kinds of people Paul is talking about; anyone who would impose religious ceremony or holidays upon members of the Body of Christ.

Tim McMahon writes:
If it's absolutely wrong to observe the feasts, why would Paul resort to such a secondary rationale of refraining from doing so in order not to give their opponents an occasion?
It isn't secondary. It's emphatic, unequivocal and strictly stated.

Tim McMahon writes:
... Would he not simply say "Don’t observe (or, Stop observing) the feasts because Christ has fulfilled them"?
No, just as I accomplish more by telling my son, "Tabitha will not scream again because you pulled her hair." If I were just to say, "Don't pull your sister's hair," it doesn't convey as much information, nor is it as emphatic, unequivocal or as strictly stated as "Tabitha will not scream again because you pulled her hair."

Tim McMahon writes:
Paul's concern is that the Judaizers are influencing the Colossians, just as they did the Galatians, to dilute the awesomeness of Christ by importing law observance into their understanding of justification and sanctification.
This is wrong. The Judaizers understood the awesomeness of Christ. Peter and the Eleven, who were obedient to all the sacrifices and ceremonies of the Law of Moses, continuing after the death and resurrection of Christ, did not have a diluted view of Christ's awesomeness.

Tim McMahon writes:
The ensuing context of Colossians 2 must be understood from this perspective.
:kookoo:

Tim McMahon writes:
What would beguile the Colossians out of their reward is not grace-based participation in a Passover Seder (or attending a Christmas sing-a-long), but getting involved in such observance under the burden of perceiving it as necessary for their justification or their spirituality.
More crap. Neither the Galatians nor the Colossians had suddenly "forgotten" that they were saved by grace through faith. This is bald eisogesis born out of a failure to rightly understand the distinctives of the Mystery. It's starting to bore me.

Tim McMahon writes:
... That's what constitutes denying the headship of Christ -- not joyfully worshipping God as His Spirit leads, but falling into the trap of believing you must do these things in order to be saved or in order for God to love you.
Tim totally disrespects Paul's own evaluation of the saints at Colossae and Galatia. Paul commended them and blessed them for their understanding of grace in salvation. He was warning them about seeking spiritual benefit ("being made perfect", Gal 3:3) via ceremonialism, which is right and proper for Israel and the Nations to do, but not for the Body of Christ.

Tim McMahon writes:
... That's the danger of the "don't taste, don't touch" kind of religion [condemned] in v.23 ...
See, Tim just doesn't get it. "Touch not, taste not" regulations were right and proper for Israel, but not for the Body of Christ.

Tim McMahon writes:
... -- not voluntarily abstaining, with full understanding of the issues involved, as Paul himself does on occasion (1 Corinthians 8:13), but doing so under the burden of fearing God's rejection if you don't.
Tripe.

Yorzhik writes:
So the 2 main points are that the command to abstain from religious ceremony is, at the very least, not "emphatically, unequivocally, and strictly" given.
Sorry, Yorzhik. I know you really want this to be the case. You even went as far as seeking out the Greek Scholar to support your behavior (and his own, by the way), just so you can have your Christmas cake and eat it, too. But the scriptures command otherwise, and you will be repudiating Christ if you choose to celebrate religious ceremonies and holidays.

Yorzhik writes:
You shouldn't be so harsh with our interpretation of Col 2 or Gal 4 when you cannot delineate a clear command.
The command is clear. It's your thinking that isn't.

Yorzhik writes:
And secondly, there is the message of the gospel of Grace. The gospel of grace cannot have laws active for this dispensation only.
You are completely wrong. The gospel for today has laws active for this dispensation only. Search and see. We are not to follow Moses. We are not to follow the earthly Jesus the way Peter and the Eleven did. We are to follow the risen and glorified Christ as Paul followed Christ (1Co 11:1) and obey the ordinances that Paul delivered to the Body of Christ (1Co 11:2).

Yorzhik writes:
The gospel of grace cannot have laws active for this dispensation only. That would be contrary to the gospel of grace.
Israel's gospel was a gospel of grace; are you aware of that? So was the gospel of the nations. Each dispensation had laws and grace. This false notion of setting law in opposition to grace seems to be the source of myriad problems in your (and Tim's) understanding of scripture.

Hilston wrote:
Paul didn't make them up, Yorzhik. These laws were held in silence, kept absolutely secret from the foundation of the world, designed and reserved specifically for the Body of Christ. This cannot be missed. Please see the following references: Ro 11:25 16:25,26 1Co 2:7 Eph 1:9 3:3-9 5:32 6:19 Col 1:26,27 2:2 4:3 1Ti 3:9,16. Paul receved the laws of the Mystery directly from the risen and glorified Christ Himself, in an unprecedented manner, apart from angelic mediation, apart from ritual, ceremony, symbolism, and holiday. That's the point. The Body of Christ, of which Paul was the charter member, has a heavenly hope, not an earthly one (as Israel and the nations). Therefore, we have direct, unmediated access to the Godhead. For Israel, they had many mediators, many priests, many intermediary steps in their worship (ceremony, symbolism, etc.). For the Body of Christ, there is but one Mediator between God and man: Christ Jesus Himself.


Yorzhik writes:
I wasn't saying the Body of Christ and how it functioned wasn't known by God and held as a mystery, it is that you are saying that a law that cannot naturally be known must be spelled out and explained so we can obey it in an age of grace. That just doesn't make sense.
What are you talking about? What laws are "naturally known"? And why shouldn't God spell things out for fallen man to learn how to obey Him?

Yorzhik writes:
It would be natural for those who love their Savior to want to celebrate and talk about Him - even by making the event big by setting a time so as many people as possible can participate together.
Oh, it's natural all right. It comes right out of nature -- the SIN nature. It is the rebellion of the sin nature that drives men into ceremonialism and religious holidays. That's why Paul's warning was so emphatic, unequivocal and strictly stated. Do not be enticed by these things, because they will entice you. You have been enticed, Yorzhik, and you've succumbed. You've given in to your fleshly nature, and you dress it up in religious garb in order to justify it.

Yorzhik writes:
The only way to dissuade this behavior would be an emphatic prohibition against that natural order.
It's an emphatic prohibition against our sin natures, which is quite natural.

Yorzhik writes:
So if I can make one thing clear, it is that the prohibition isn't "emphatically, unequivocally, and strictly" given. Gal 4 and Col 2 don't support the emphatic interpretation that you see.
On the contrary, it is not only emphatic, unequivocal, and strictly stated, but the consequences of violating these dispensational laws are far more grave and horrifying than murder or stealing. No where does Paul warn that stealing and murder will separate you from Christ. No where does Paul warn that lying or cheating will cause you to fall from grace. But he does say this about observing religious ceremonies and holidays.
 

Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
Originally posted by STONE
The greek word '1626' you are referring to as abortion is a combination of ek(out) and '5134' trauma (wounding, affliction) and is only used in scripture in this verse. Born is not even part of the word.
It doesn't have to be. It is how the word was understood at the time.

Originally posted by STONE
Nor is it in context according to the passage. Possibly more likely he is referring to Jesus's persecution by Him rather than referring to himself as an abortion?
1Co 15:8 And last of all he was seen of me also, as of one who persecuted Jesus? Uh. No. According to several lexicons and dictionary references, the word means "abortioned" or "miscarried."

"to cut or excise out, to cause or suffer abortion, miscarry. An abortion, one born prematurely" S. Zodhiates, Complete Word Study Dictionary

"a child untimely born, an abortion" E.W. Bullinger, Critical Lexicon and Concordance of the English and Greek New Testament.

"an abortion, baby prematurely born," Wm. D. Mounce, The Analytical Lexicon to the Greek New Testament

"'an abortion, an untimely birth'; from ektitrosko, 'to miscarry'" W.E. Vine, Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words

"a miscarriage, an untimely birth," Wigram-Green, The New Englishman's Greek Concordance and Lexicon

There are plenty more I could cite. Now don't get me wrong; just because all these men agree doesn't mean they're right. I have often gone against the various scholars and linguists when I've found the context and usage of a word to be contrary to their claims. I don't think this is such a case. But if you want to make an argument to the contrary, I'm all ears.

Originally posted by STONE
The overlapping you are talking about it seems you are adding on.
Of course it's going to seem that way to you. I, however, was forced to this conclusion, and have seen it borne out elsewhere in scripture, because of the framework by which I understand the scripture.
 

JustAChristian

New member
How The Christian Should Celebrate Christmas.

How The Christian Should Celebrate Christmas.

Often there are things that we believe to be in the Bible and they are not. Let's consider some of these that pertain to this time of year. Was Jesus born in a stable in Bethlehem? Matthew 2:1 and Luke: 4,7 tell us that He was born in that manner. The Shepherd’s coming to the stable to see the baby Jesus is a fact found in Luke 2:15-16. Were there three wise men and did they visit Jesus in the stable? The Bible does not tell us how many wise men came to see Jesus , however, it does mention three gifts: gold, frankincense, and myrrh (Matt.2: 11) . This causes many to conclude there were three visitors traditionally called Maji. We find they presented these gifts to Him in a house though and not at the stable (Matt. 2:11).

Jesus Christ’s birth is a historical fact . The Bible, however, does not give a specific date. The Bible tells us that Caesar Augustus was emperor and Herod was king at the time of His birth. By using this historical data we can arrive at an approximate year. By certain events that happened, such as shepherds watching over their flocks in the fields, perhaps even the season of the year . Again, we are not able to ascertain though, a specific date.

Are we made to wonder, by this continual festive season, if early Christians at this time, celebrated His birthday? Nothing in the Bible tells us the early church celebrated His birth. The special day of Christmas does not appear in the Bible and was unknown to the early Christians. The idea to celebrate Christmas on December 25 originated in the 4th century. The Catholic Church wanted to rival the festivities of a the competing pagan religion that threatened Christianity's existence. The Roman pagans celebrated the birthday of their sun god, Mithras during this same time of year. Although it was not popular, or even proper, to celebrate people's birthdays in those times, church leaders decided that in order to compete with the pagan celebration, they would order a festival in celebration of the birth of Jesus Christ.

Although the actual season of Jesus' birth is thought to be in the Spring, the date of December 25 was chosen as the official birthday celebration as Christ's Mass so that it would compete directly with the rival pagan celebration. Therefore, the direct reason for our December 25th celebration was, in fact, derived from a battle to establish a religious superiority.

Though it is not inherently wrong to observe the day of Christmas as a national holiday, to exchange gifts, to have lighted trees and ornaments, to enjoy the childhood fantasies that come with the season, we should not impose upon the Word of God by making it a religious holiday. We should be directing ourselves spiritually based on authority and not traditions (Col. 3: 17).

JustAChristian
 

Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
JustAChristian writes:
Though it is not inherently wrong to observe the day of Christmas as a national holiday, to exchange gifts, to have lighted trees and ornaments, to enjoy the childhood fantasies that come with the season, ...
No behavior is "inherently" wrong, JustAChristian. What makes something wrong is its context and motivation. Observing Christmas and its attending religious traditions is contrary to scripture. That makes it wrong. It's not an option.

JustAChristian writes:
... we should not impose upon the Word of God by making it a religious holiday.
"Making it a religious holiday"? How is it even conceivable that Christmas could be observed as a non-religious holiday? How do you define "religious"?
 
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