Companion Thread for KJV only debate

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themuzicman

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Originally Posted by Muz



Muz, this is pure Baloney. Where on earth did you get your “13 places” figure? Are you inventing these numbers from your own vivid imagination? That is so utterly over the top, out of the ballpark ridiculous that nobody who knows a modicum of the textual differences that exist today could possibly take you seriously.

What I mean is that there are 13 places where text crit scholars cannot make a clear assertion as to the correct reading.

Do we go with the RSV that omits some 45 entire verses from the New Testament that are found in the NKJV, plus another 2000 to 3000 other words besides? Or how about your NIV that omits 17 entire verses plus half of another 50 verses, plus hundreds of other words from the texts used by such versions as the NKJV? Or the ESV that omits even more whole verses than the NIV but not as many as the previous RSV? And all of them often and not in the same places reject the Hebrew readings. Who are you trying to kid?

That just means that the KJV has a lot of extra stuff that scribes have added over the years. That's the major fault of the Byzantine Text Type.

Muz
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
Hi Muz. I figured you would avoid answering the question again, and you did just that. YOU are the one who said you believed God has preserved His words, and then when I asked you which verse or verses you use to support this belief, you flake out and avoid answering the question with any clear verses. Why might this be? Because if you give me some verses then they will contradict and nullify your own arguments. You would end up calling God a liar again, like you did with the Mark 4:31 mustard seed fiasco you brought up.

I didn't call God a liar. My doctrine of preservation allows God to preserve His words without demands from us fallen humans.

Muz, you never did "prove" the King James Bible is not the inspired and inerrant words of God, not even close. The only thing you proved is that you yourself do not have nor believe in any Bible that is the inspired and inerrant words of God.

It wasn't my task to prove that they weren't inspired and inerrant. That was your task to prove that they are. You can't prove a negative.

You had your arguments and silly examples of John 1:18 and Mark 4:31 shot down (the only two examples you managed to bring up). It is abundantly clear that you yourself have no inerrant Bible and absolutely NO Standard by which you sit in judgment on the King James Bible or any other bible for that matter, except your own fertile imagination. And now boast of having proven that the King James Bible is not the inerrant words of God.:dizzy:

I brought them up as examples of where the KJV is in question. And it is in question. There are dozens of other good examples, but that wasn't the point. It wasn't my task to show error. It was your task to show that the KJV is the preserved and inerrant word of God. You failed in that task.

I know you continue to hold your belief based upon your faulty view of preservation. At no time was I under the impression that you would change your mind.

The fact is that in your certainly about the KJV, you exposed the fact that your belief has no foundation in Scripture or in rational thought. Your faith in the KJV is blind, and it has been clearly exposed.

We can talk about the quality of other translations and modern Greek texts all you want, but in the end, the KJV is just another translation. You said it yourself: You cannot prove that the KJV is the preserved and inspired Word of God.

I don't know how much greater admission of defeat can exist than that.

Muz
 

CabinetMaker

Member of the 10 year club on TOL!!
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Face it Musicman, you lost severely, you just use this as an excuse to make a hasty retreat, because you have no Biblical answer.For....
Where is the pure word of God in one volume?
You would not dare answer that one....
I could stake my salvation on that one with absolute confidence.:first:
*******
PeterAV
Every word of God is pure:
How do you figure Muz lost. Brandplucked never offered any meaningful support for his position. He pointed of lots of differences between the translations and he offered some historical information he bases his claim of KJV superiority upon. Most of the time he spent trying to tell Muz what Muz believes and attempted to get Muz to admit to it.

All in all, in the realms of debate, Brandplucked's performance was less than compelling.
 

CabinetMaker

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:baby:

Here are two examples from the Psalms that illustrate what the NIV is doing.

In Psalm 72:5 we read: "THEY SHALL FEAR THEE as long as the sun and moon endure, throughout all generations."

. This is the reading of the KJB, Revised Version, ASV, NASB, NKJV, the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, the Spanish, Young's, Darby's, Geneva, and the 2001 revision of the RSV called the English Standard Version.

The NIV, however reads: "HE WILL ENDURE as long as the sun..." This is also the reading of the liberal RSV and NRSV, though the new ESV has again gone back to the KJB and Hebrew reading.. But the footnotes found in the NIV, RSV, and NRSV all tell us that the reading of HE WILL ENDURE comes from the Greek Septuagint, but that the Hebrew reads "they shall fear thee".

So why did the NIV change the clear Hebrew reading? Doesn't the Hebrew make sense? Didn't God inspire the words of the Old Testament in Hebrew and not in Greek, Syriac or Latin?

The second example is found in Psalm 73:7. There the Psalmist is speaking of the foolish and wicked who prosper in this world. He says of them: "THEIR EYES STAND OUT WITH FATNESS: they have more than heart could wish."

This is the reading of not only the KJV, NKJV, NASB, RV, ASV, but also of the RSV, NRSV and the ESV versions. However the NIV says: "FROM THEIR CALLOUS HEARTS COMES INIQUITY". Then in a footnote the NIV tells us this reading comes from the SYRIAC, but that the Hebrew says "their eyes bulge with fat."

Again, why would the "good, godly, evangelical scholars" who worked on the NIV change the text, if the Hebrew clearly makes sense and there is no doubt about what it says?

Also of note is the totally changed meaning of verse 9 where we read: "THEY SET THEIR MOUTH AGAINST THE HEAVENS, and their tongue walketh through the earth."

These wicked people speak against God, blaspheme heavenly truths and talk only of earthly interests. "They set their mouth against the heavens" is the reading or meaning of even the NASB, RSV, ASV, NRSV, RV, ESV, and NKJV. Yet the NIV actually says: "Their mouths LAY CLAIM TO HEAVEN, and their tongues take possession of the earth."

Psalm 105:21-22 "He made him lord of his house, and ruler of all his substance: TO BIND his princes at his pleasure; and to teach his senators wisdom."

"to bind his princes" -So read the Hebrew texts, as well as the RV, ASV, the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, the Geneva Bible, NKJV, ESV, Darby, Green's MKJV, Holman Standard, and Young's. The NASB says: "to imprison", and even Wallace's NET version reads: "giving him authority to IMPRISON his officials." Then he footnotes: "Heb “to BIND his officials."

However the NIV joins the liberal RSV, NRSV and says: "TO INSTRUCT his princes as he pleased." This time the NIV doesn't tell us in their footnotes why they changed the text, but the RSV, NRSV and ESV tell us that "to instruct" comes from the so called LXX, the Syriac, and Jerome, but that the Hebrew reads "to bind". Again notice that the 2001 ESV has gone back to the Hebrew reading instead of the previous RSV rejection of the Hebrew text.

There is a distinct pattern easily seen if one studies the different bible versions. The King James Old Testament is based on the Hebrew Masoretic text and the New Testament on the traditional Greek text. When the RV and ASV came out, they significantly changed the Greek text of the New Testament but kept the Masoretic text intact. Then the liberal RSV appeared with the same corrupted Greek text of the apostates Westcott and Hort, but also with many of the same changes in the Hebrew text that now appear in the NASB and the ever worsening NIV.

Will K
Again, you have proved that there are differences in the translations. You have critiqued those differences based on an assumed superiority of the KJV.

The NIV used a different algorithm for translation that some of the other modern versions and it frequently irritates people. The NIV is a dynamic translation. It is word for word whenever it can be but when word for word makes no sense, it then translate idea for idea to maintain the correct meaning. The NIV is a great bible for readability. Whenever I want to do an in depth study of a subject then I include a word for word translation and/or a Strongs.

The words between the translations are different but the meaning is the same. Take the word bind. Were they bound with ropes or were they bound with learning? What is the meaning of bind in the KJV?
 

CabinetMaker

Member of the 10 year club on TOL!!
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Originally Posted by Muz



Muz, this is pure Baloney. Where on earth did you get your “13 places” figure? Are you inventing these numbers from your own vivid imagination? That is so utterly over the top, out of the ballpark ridiculous that nobody who knows a modicum of the textual differences that exist today could possibly take you seriously.

Do we go with the RSV that omits some 45 entire verses from the New Testament that are found in the NKJV, plus another 2000 to 3000 other words besides? Or how about your NIV that omits 17 entire verses plus half of another 50 verses, plus hundreds of other words from the texts used by such versions as the NKJV? Or the ESV that omits even more whole verses than the NIV but not as many as the previous RSV? And all of them often and not in the same places reject the Hebrew readings. Who are you trying to kid?

Cabinet Maker then says:

CM, you REALLY have a serious reading comprehension problem, besides totally failing to grasp what we were even talking about. Muz did NOT state "there are 13 places where THE TRANSLATORS were unsure of the original reading."

Go back and read his statement (which by the way is totally off the wall and completely in error).


I guess one lie leads to another with you No Bible is Inspired guys. If you mess with the Book, God will mess with your mind.




Will K
You strain over gnats. You are so wrapped up with which word is used you neer look at the meanings of the words used.

Translators or critics, the fact remains; that the NIV omitted a number verses or words greater than 13 does not mean that people were not unsure of the translation. The verses and words were omitted because of certainty in there work. There are 13 places the critics are unsure of the meaning of the text in the bible. It soys nothing of the text that is not in the bible.

Its a strawman and it is poorly setup and attacked.
 

dreadknought

New member


To me there wasn't really a debate at all. There was only a one sided dialogue in the debate. Muz dialogued. Will used the proclaimation and deflections approach. Not to mention the show me yours tactic to disprove credibility. Will did not prove the KJV onlies position. No verifiable support in the one on one and no direct answer's in the peanut gallery. Just canned articles for support of the KJVO's fanatical claims and the infamous English versus English argument. Lot's of unverified speculation and no consistency.
One must take the plank out of one's eye before they can remove the speck from a brother's.
 

Psalmist

Blessed is the man that......
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Did you say /error free/perfect?

What does . . .

# If God supervised the translation process so that the KJV is 100% error free, why did God not extend this supervision to the printers?

Have to do with . . .

Pretty dumb question when you look at creation.
Just ask the same question.
If God supervised the creation process so that all was perfect/100% pure, why did not God extend his perfection to the choices of Adam and Eve in their wills?
*******

I thought is had something to with supervision and translation (Companion Thread for KJV only debate) not creation and Adam and Eve.

See preacher?
He that proves too much really proves nothing at all.
You have some real lame questions.:box: :dead:
PeterAV
Every word of God is pure:
Do you believe that?

Preacher?
And your point about proving to much? Oh yes, proving nothing at all.
The questions were from "The KJV Refuted"
You is who?



That’s​
- 30 -​
:scripto:. . Psalmist
 

AVBunyan

New member
The NIV used a different algorithm for translation that some of the other modern versions and it frequently irritates people. The NIV is a dynamic translation. /QUOTE]
The NIV, ASV, NASSV, ESV, and the rest of these MVs are based upon a completely different set of manuscripts than that of the A.V These vile MVs are based upon the works of a lost, heathen philosopher from Origen who doubted the deity and work of Jesus Christ.

Who cares about all this dynamic equivalent fancy talk stuff when the texts they are from are from hell! Take you algorithm and dynamic translation talk and junk it - the texts are corrupt so it doesn't make any difference as to what kind of translation method was used. You can't polish a pile of dung. :banana:
 

AVBunyan

New member
The NIV used a different algorithm for translation that some of the other modern versions and it frequently irritates people. The NIV is a dynamic translation.
The NIV, ASV, NASSV, ESV, and the rest of these MVs are based upon a completely different set of manuscripts than that of the A.V These vile MVs are based upon the works of a lost, heathen philosopher from Origen who doubted the deity and work of Jesus Christ.

Who cares about all this dynamic equivalent fancy talk stuff when the texts they are from are from hell! Take you algorithm and dynamic translation talk and junk it - the texts are corrupt so it doesn't make any difference as to what kind of translation method was used. You can't polish a pile of dung. :banana:
 

brandplucked

New member
More of Muz's Baloney

More of Muz's Baloney

What I mean is that there are 13 places where text crit scholars cannot make a clear assertion as to the correct reading.



That just means that the KJV has a lot of extra stuff that scribes have added over the years. That's the major fault of the Byzantine Text Type.

Muz

Muz, could you list these 13 places for us? And according to WHICH text crit scholars? Those behind the NASB or the ones behind the NKJV. James White (like you) says one thing (and not even he would claim something so ridiculous as your "13 places"), and the NKJV guys who have been to the same seminaries and have access to the same information say the exact opposite.

"Little White Lies"

In his book, The KJV Only Controversy, on page 152-153 Mr. James White actually says: "Every one of the papyrus manuscripts we have discovered has been a representative of the Alexandrian, not the Byzantine text type" and "The early Fathers who wrote at this time did not use the Byzantine text-type" and "the early translations of the New Testament reveals that they were done on the basis of the Alexandrian type manuscripts, not the Byzantine text-type" and "the early church fathers who wrote during the early centuries give no evidence in their citations of a familiarity with the Byzantine text-type".

These are such huge whoppers I could not believe he actually wrote this totally false information in his book. There is tons of evidence that even the early papyrus manuscripts, all of which came from Alexandria Egypt, were a mixed bag and there are many Byzantine readings found in them where they agree with the KJB readings and not the Westcott- Hort Alexandrian copies of Sinaiticus and Vaticanus.

Furthermore, concerning the church Fathers, Dean John Burgon compiled over 86,000 citations and quotes of the church Fathers and found that not only did the Textus Receptus exist but it predominated.

The early versions like the Old Latin contain many Traditional Text readings not found in Sinaiticus and Vaticanus as does the Syriac Peshitta. And both of these predate Sinaiticus Vaticanus by 150 years.

Even Dr. Hort of the famed Westcott Hort text said: "The fundamental Text of late extant Greek MSS generally is beyond all question identical with the dominant Antiochian or Graeco-Syrian Text of the second half of the 4th century." (Hort, The Factor of Geneology, pg 92---as cited by Burgon, Revision Revised, pg 257).

Dean Burgon immediately comments: "We request, in passing, that the foregoing statement may be carefully noted. The Traditional Greek Text of the New Testament, ---the TEXTUS RECEPTUS, in short--is, according to Dr. Hort, `BEYOND ALL QUESTION the TEXT OF THE SECOND HALF OF THE FOURTH CENTURY.'

In other words, at the very time Sinaiticus and Vaticanus were penned, the Byzantine texts were already the predominate texts of the Christian church!



What do other equally trained and "competent scholars" have to say regarding the papyrus manuscripts, the early translations and the church fathers? The NKJV editors (which, by the way, Mr. White recommends as a "reliable translation") tell us THE EXACT OPPOSITE of what Mr. White so boldly and confidently states.

The following quotes are found in the 1982 edition of the NKJV. Keep in mind that these men are not King James Bible onlyists.

In the preface of the NKJV, which was translated by some of the same men who translated the NIV, it says on page vii "The manuscript preferences cited in many contemporary translations are due to recent reliance on a relatively few manuscripts discovered in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. Dependence on these manuscripts, especially two, the Sinaitic and Vatican manuscripts, is due to the greater age of these documents.

However, in spite of their age, some scholars have reason to doubt their faithfulness to the autographs, since they often disagree with one another and show other signs of unreliability.

On the other hand, the great majority of existing manuscripts are in substantial agreement. Even though many are late, and none are earlier than the fifth century, MOST OF THEIR READINGS ARE VERIFIED BY ANCIENT PAPYRI, ANCIENT VERSIONS, AND QUOTATIONS OF THE EARLY CHURCH FATHERS. This large body of manuscripts is the source of the Greek text underlying the King James Bible. It is the Greek text used by Greek-speaking churches for many centuries, presently known as the Textus Receptus, or Received Text, of the New Testament.

Then on page 1231 the NKJV editors say: "The Byzantine Text. This text was largely preserved in the area of the old Byzantine Empire, the area which is now Turkey, Bulgaria, Greece, Albania, and Yugoslavia. OVER EIGHTY-FIVE PERCENT of the extant manuscripts belong to the Byzantine text type. Also, from the oldest to the most recent manuscripts of this type, there is greater homogeneity than among the manuscripts of any other text type. The King James Version is based largely on a Byzantine type Greek text."


So Muz. Would you care to seriously discuss your alleged 13 examples?

Will K
 

CabinetMaker

Member of the 10 year club on TOL!!
Hall of Fame
The NIV used a different algorithm for translation that some of the other modern versions and it frequently irritates people. The NIV is a dynamic translation. /QUOTE]
The NIV, ASV, NASSV, ESV, and the rest of these MVs are based upon a completely different set of manuscripts than that of the A.V These vile MVs are based upon the works of a lost, heathen philosopher from Origen who doubted the deity and work of Jesus Christ.

Who cares about all this dynamic equivalent fancy talk stuff when the texts they are from are from hell! Take you algorithm and dynamic translation talk and junk it - the texts are corrupt so it doesn't make any difference as to what kind of translation method was used. You can't polish a pile of dung. :banana:
Fortunatly, the NIV is God's inspired words and needs no polish to shine.
 

AVBunyan

New member
Fortunatly, the NIV is God's inspired words and needs no polish to shine.
Would God inspire a translation that would...

1. Try to hide the deity of Christ by attributing Mark 1:2 to Isaiah?

2. Make Christ come from "ancient times" in Micah 5:?

3. Change the titles and names of Christ by taking out Lord, Christ, Lord Jesus, etc. in many passages thus leaving a shortened name or title?

4. Change forms of worship to forms of kneel and bow?

5. Take away the omnipresence of Christ in: John 3:13 "No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven--the Son of Man". - by taking out "which is in heaven."?

6. Replace the names and titles of the Saviour consistently with "the One" or "One"?

And about a couple of dozen more similar examples.

And you do not have a problem with these kind of things? Oh I see, "Just differences in ways to translate...." :kookoo:

Either your doctrinal conscience has been seared with a hot iron or you just can't "see" these things. :down:
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
AVBunyan,

Would you say that the NIV is the worst of the worse?
I've never even picked one up to look at it...nor wanted to.
 

CabinetMaker

Member of the 10 year club on TOL!!
Hall of Fame
Would God inspire a translation that would...

1. Try to hide the deity of Christ by attributing Mark 1:2 to Isaiah?

2. Make Christ come from "ancient times" in Micah 5:?

3. Change the titles and names of Christ by taking out Lord, Christ, Lord Jesus, etc. in many passages thus leaving a shortened name or title?

4. Change forms of worship to forms of kneel and bow?

5. Take away the omnipresence of Christ in: John 3:13 "No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven--the Son of Man". - by taking out "which is in heaven."?

6. Replace the names and titles of the Saviour consistently with "the One" or "One"?

And about a couple of dozen more similar examples.

And you do not have a problem with these kind of things? Oh I see, "Just differences in ways to translate...." :kookoo:

Either your doctrinal conscience has been seared with a hot iron or you just can't "see" these things. :down:
In point of fact, God DID inspire it. It is God's word. Now, as to the translation, yes I think God would provide a translation that better matches the original texts we have found and uses language more in keeping with the people He is trying to reach - "modern" man.

You have not provided me with any meaningful scriptural support that the KJV is the standard against which all other translations are to measured. Until you do, the KJV remains just another translation, God's preserved and inspired word, but no more so than just about any other translation.

Can you provide me with scriptural facts that say God personally picked the KJV as His preferred translation?
 

CabinetMaker

Member of the 10 year club on TOL!!
Hall of Fame
AVBunyan,

Would you say that the NIV is the worst of the worse?
I've never even picked one up to look at it...nor wanted to.
Maybe you should. Instead of relaying on what others say about a translation, maybe you should pick one up for yourself and read it with a prayerful and humble heart. Maybe you and the Holy Spirit should decide which translation is best for you.
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Maybe you should. Instead of relaying on what others say about a translation, maybe you should pick one up for yourself and read it with a prayerful and humble heart. Maybe you and the Holy Spirit should decide which translation is best for you.

Does this make sense to you?

Gal 2:16 NIV

16know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we, too, have put our faith in Christ Jesus that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by observing the law, because by observing the law no one will be justified.
 

AVBunyan

New member
AVBunyan,

Would you say that the NIV is the worst of the worse?
I've never even picked one up to look at it...nor wanted to.
Well brother, real close to the worse, if not, at least the most dangerous because:

1.It "sounds" so pleasing to the ear.

2. The New Age doctrine is there more than others.

3. It has massive marketing behind its promotion.

4. It's handling of the person and work of Christ is deceitful and yet very subtle

The NIV is based upon the Egyptian texts like the rest of the MVs but it is more "refined" and "modern". :jawdrop:

I look at only to warn the unsuspecting. :thumb:

God bless
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
A little more NIV:

Rom 3
21But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. 22This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference...

A righteousness? (not, the righteousness OF GOD?)

Through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe? (I don't understand)
 
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