ECT NOTABLE HERETICS THROUGHOUT CHRISTIAN HISTORY HAVE BASED HERESIES ON SOLA SCRIPTURA

Bright Raven

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2 Timothy 3:15-17 New American Standard Bible (NASB)

15 and that from childhood you have known the sacred writings which are able to give you the wisdom that leads to salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;

17 so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work.
 

Cruciform

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2 Timothy 3:15 and that from childhood you have known the sacred writings which are able to give you the wisdom that leads to salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17 so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work.
Yes, Scripture is "profitable." Where in this passage does it state that "Everything believed by Christians must be explicitly stated in the Bible"?
 

TulipBee

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Is your assumption that "Everything believed by Christians must be explicitly stated in the Bible" explicitly stated in the Bible? :nono:
Ok, so its not inside the bible as written by the holy spirit himself. More empty words invented by man authorized by another chief
 

Bright Raven

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The written texts are not all of Divine Revelation (God's Word). Sacred Tradition is also the Word of God.

In any case, 2 Tim. 3:16 certainly does not state that "Everything believed by Christians must be explicitly stated in the Bible." :nono:

So much for your unbiblical assumption.

Doesn't the verse say ALL scripture is inspired by God?
 

Ask Mr. Religion

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Note the Romanist's tactic in claiming that the ecumenical councils are their own doing.

Actually, the first ecumenical council, the Council of Nicea (325 AD), demonstrates that Rome did not hold the place of preeminence amongst the bishops (overseers, presbyters). The church condemning the heresies dealt with at Nicea is nothing in resemblance to what Romanism became and is today. They just want to co-opt history and claim they have existed since the time of the Apostles. This is the typical use of anachronistic apologetics Romanists are guilty of using time and again.

Do not buy into the Romanists “the RCC has been the one true church for two thousand years” rhetoric.

The RCC today is four or five generations removed from its beginnings. The ancient form held to Nicene orthodoxy and was in fellowship with other churches. The medieval version insisted on Roman supremacy, embraced transubstantiation, and thusly separated itself from other Christian churches. At that time justification and the place of tradition were still open to discussion. At Trent, the Tridentine form (1545–1563) of the church moved it beyond its medieval form by condemning views that had remained open to discussion and adding many more. Next came Vatican I (1868–1870) and Vatican II (1962–1965). These post-Tridentine versions of Rome theoretically are to be upholding the decisions of Trent, but when one examines the practices of Rome, they have moved outside the bounds and against Trent. For example, rather than supplementing Scripture with tradition, post-Tridentine Rome uses tradition to usurp Scripture.

Even Roman Catholic scholars acknowledge that the early Christian community in Rome was not unified under a single head. (Paul, for example, reminded Timothy of the gift he was given when the presbytery laid its hands on him in his ordination: 1 Tim 4:14). In fact, in the Roman Catholic-Anglican dialogue the Vatican acknowledged that “the New Testament texts offer no sufficient basis for papal primacy” and that they contain “no explicit record of a transmission of Peter’s leadership” From Unity Faith and Order - Dialogues - Anglican Roman Catholic Authority in the Church II (Anglican/Roman Catholic Joint Preparatory Commission), paragraph 2, 6.).

So one has to accept papal authority exclusively on the basis of subsequent (post-apostolic) claims of the Roman bishop, without scriptural warrant. There is no historical succession from Peter to the bishops of Rome. First, as Jerome observed in the 4th-century, “Before attachment to persons in religion was begun at the instigation of the devil, the churches were governed by the common consultation of the elders,” and Jerome goes so far as to suggest that the introduction of bishops as a separate order above the presbyters was “more from custom than from the truth of an arrangement by the Lord” (cited in the Second Helvetic Confession, Ch 18). Interestingly, even Ratzinger acknowledges that presbyter and episcipos were used interchangeably in the New Testament and in the earliest churches (Called to Communion, 122-123).

Gregory the Great expressed offense at being addressed by a bishop as “universal pope”: “a word of proud address that I have forbidden….None of my predecessors ever wished to use this profane word ['universal']….But I say it confidently, because whoever calls himself ‘universal bishop’ or wishes to be so called, is in his self-exaltation Antichrist’s precursor, for in his swaggering he sets himself before the rest” (Gregory I, Letters; tr. NPNF 2 ser.XII. i. 75-76; ii. 170, 171, 179, 166, 169, 222, 225).

In other words, Rome's claims today are their own mythologies, not the reality of history. Sadly, many Protestants and Romanists swallow Rome's public relations machine outputs without careful scrutiny. Don't take the bait.

AMR
 

Cruciform

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Note the Romanist's tactic in claiming that the ecumenical councils are their own doing.Actually, the first ecumenical council, the Council of Nicea (325 AD), demonstrates that Rome did not hold the place of preeminence amongst the bishops (overseers, presbyters). The church condemning the heresies dealt with at Nicea is nothing in resemblance to what Romanism became and is today. They just want to co-opt history and claim they have existed since the time of the Apostles. This is the typical use of anachronistic apologetics Romanists are guilty of using time and again.Do not buy into the Romanists “the RCC has been the one true church for two thousand years” rhetoric.The RCC today is four or five generations removed from its beginnings. The ancient form held to Nicene orthodoxy and was in fellowship with other churches. The medieval version insisted on Roman supremacy, embraced transubstantiation, and thusly separated itself from other Christian churches. At that time justification and the place of tradition were still open to discussion. At Trent, the Tridentine form (1545–1563) of the church moved it beyond its medieval form by condemning views that had remained open to discussion and adding many more. Next came Vatican I (1868–1870) and Vatican II (1962–1965). These post-Tridentine versions of Rome theoretically are to be upholding the decisions of Trent, but when one examines the practices of Rome, they have moved outside the bounds and against Trent. For example, rather than supplementing Scripture with tradition, post-Tridentine Rome uses tradition to usurp Scripture.Even Roman Catholic scholars acknowledge that the early Christian community in Rome was not unified under a single head. (Paul, for example, reminded Timothy of the gift he was given when the presbytery laid its hands on him in his ordination: 1 Tim 4:14). In fact, in the Roman Catholic-Anglican dialogue the Vatican acknowledged that “the New Testament texts offer no sufficient basis for papal primacy” and that they contain “no explicit record of a transmission of Peter’s leadership” From Unity Faith and Order - Dialogues - Anglican Roman Catholic Authority in the Church II (Anglican/Roman Catholic Joint Preparatory Commission), paragraph 2, 6.).So one has to accept papal authority exclusively on the basis of subsequent (post-apostolic) claims of the Roman bishop, without scriptural warrant. There is no historical succession from Peter to the bishops of Rome. First, as Jerome observed in the 4th-century, “Before attachment to persons in religion was begun at the instigation of the devil, the churches were governed by the common consultation of the elders,” and Jerome goes so far as to suggest that the introduction of bishops as a separate order above the presbyters was “more from custom than from the truth of an arrangement by the Lord” (cited in the Second Helvetic Confession, Ch 18). Interestingly, even Ratzinger acknowledges that presbyter and episcipos were used interchangeably in the New Testament and in the earliest churches (Called to Communion, 122-123).Gregory the Great expressed offense at being addressed by a bishop as “universal pope”: “a word of proud address that I have forbidden….None of my predecessors ever wished to use this profane word ['universal']….But I say it confidently, because whoever calls himself ‘universal bishop’ or wishes to be so called, is in his self-exaltation Antichrist’s precursor, for in his swaggering he sets himself before the rest” (Gregory I, Letters; tr. NPNF 2 ser.XII. i. 75-76; ii. 170, 171, 179, 166, 169, 222, 225).In other words, Rome's claims today are their own mythologies, not the reality of history. Sadly, many Protestants and Romanists swallow Rome's public relations machine outputs without careful scrutiny. Don't take the bait.
All of this has already been answered by Catholics on this forum more than once. Don't bother. :yawn:
 

Lon

Well-known member
Neither "invaded" the Church, but both have been part of Christian doctrine from the beginning.

Er, Indulgences? From the beginning of what? I find a disturbing lack of paying for your sin up front, in cold hard cash, so you can do it later, a little less than compelling or biblical. (Yeah, I know, a link on it's way, just saying I'm not particularly persuaded).


Thanks. It does a VERY good job of 1) saying why they were allowed 2) saying that those pesky semi-pelagian Jesuits (from France no less) gained the very political upperhand and 3) that the Pope caved to Cardinal opinion rather than coming up with something 'better.' You'll call that progress and I call it blunder. They either should have done way at the get rather than several hundred years later, or should not have been so hasty as to be pressured by Jesuits over a matter of days, what took years to come to a head. In short: Bad advice.

Yes---by the Magisterium, and in light of Sacred Tradition. So, not by sola scriptura.
Bet me. Proof: John 14:6 Can Tradition or Magisterium ever change that verse? Yes or no? Next: Can scripture countermand tradition? Yep, that was the Reformation. Can scripture countermand the Magisterium? Yep, EOC, Vatican 1,2 etc. Now, before you get into a defense, note only this: The scripture is the ONLY thing uncontested between us, and really, between yourselves.

Never said they were. Rather, Scripture, Tradition, and Magisterium are the rule of faith.
But my point was that it hasn't served you, when any one of those trumps the other EXCEPT scripture as given above. That, for us, is what Sola Scriptura means.

A distinction without a difference [source].
This link only matters to a Catholic. 500 years is a long time AND you have Vatican 1,2 problems within AND jettisoned Jansenists, so I've no hope of ever being convinced of anything Catholic at the outset (not that I desire it, just saying you don't either). This one was a long one. I may read it all one day, but a particular section?

We didn't "have them" in the sense that you assume. Rather, this was a time when such doctrines had not yet been formally defined, and so were not yet considered officially heretical. Once the hypostatic union of Christ was formally defined, however, the issue was closed, and no further debate was required. At that point, one was required to either affirm and follow the Church's teaching, or reject it and experience the consequences.
Gaudium de veritate,

Cruciform
+T+
Well, back to circular reasoning: "We were/are the ONLY church!" "No they were part of another church, not us." If you want to win a war over semantics, then you can go ahead and claim there are no fragments. There is no church but Rome (interesting to read AMR's post on the heels, they tie together). The problem is your own Popes have cut-off that escape. We are fellows in err. I don't know what Catholic Apologetics is really 'supposed' to accomplish. Perhaps that'd be a good thread one day. They don't make me want to run to the RC walls. I actually think they strengthen Protestant resolve. I'm not sure if that was/is the intention of Catholic Apologetics.
 

bsmitts

New member
Heresiarchs and heretical movements based their doctrines on Scripture interpreted apart from Tradition and the Magisterium.

If you look at the history of the early Church, you will see that it continually struggled against heresies and those who promoted them. We also see the Church responding to those threats again and again by convening Councils [15] and turning to Rome to settle disputes in matters of doctrine and discipline. For example, Pope Clement intervened in a controversy in the Church at Corinth at the end of the 1st century and put an end to a schism there. In the 2nd century, Pope Victor threatened to excommunicate a large portion of the Church in the East because of a dispute about when Easter should be celebrated. In the earlier part of the 3rd century, Pope Callistus pronounced the condemnation of the Sabellian heresy.

In the case of these heresies and/or conflicts in discipline that would arise, the people involved would defend their erroneous beliefs by their respective interpretations of Scripture, apart from the Sacred Tradition and the teaching Magisterium of the Church. A good illustration of this point is the case of Arius, the 4th-century priest who declared that the Son of God was a creature and was not co-equal with the Father.

Arius and those who followed him quoted verses from the Bible to "prove" their claims. [16] The disputes and controversies which arose over his teachings became so great that the first Ecumenical Council was convened in Nicaea in 325 A.D. to settle them. The Council, under the authority of the Pope, declared Arius’ teachings to be heretical and made some decisive declarations about the Person of Christ, and it did so based on what Sacred Tradition had to say regarding the Scripture verses in question.

Here we see the teaching authority of the Church being used as the final say in an extremely important doctrinal matter. If there had been no teaching authority to appeal to, then Arius’ error could have overtaken the Church. As it is, a majority of the bishops at the time fell for the Arian heresy. [17] Even though Arius had based his arguments on the Bible and probably "compared Scripture with Scripture," the fact is that he arrived at an heretical conclusion. It was the teaching authority of the Church – hierarchically constituted – which stepped in and declared he was wrong.

The application is obvious. If you ask a Protestant whether or not Arius was correct in his belief that the Son was created, he will, of course, respond in the negative. Emphasize, then, that even though Arius presumably "compared Scripture with Scripture," he nonetheless arrived at an erroneous conclusion. If this were true for Arius, what guarantee does the Protestant have that it is not also true for his interpretation of a given Bible passage? The very fact that the Protestant knows Arius’ interpretations were heretical implies that an objectively true or "right" interpretation exists for the Biblical passages he used. The issue, then, becomes a question of how we can know what that true interpretation is. The only possible answer is that there must be, out of necessity, an infallible authority to tell us. That infallible authority, the Catholic Church, declared Arius heretical. Had the Catholic Church not been both infallible and authoritative in its declaration, then believers would have had no reason whatsoever to reject Arius’ teachings, and the whole of Christianity today might have been comprised of modern-day Arians.

It is evident, then, that using the Bible alone is not a guarantee of arriving at doctrinal truth. The above-described result is what happens when the erroneous doctrine of sola scriptura is used as a guiding principle, and the history of the Church and the numerous heresies it has had to address are undeniable testimony to this fact.


Read entire article here.​


QUESTION: How do your various Protestant (non-Catholic) doctrinal traditions account for this historical reality?

I have this faith that if I'm wrong because of them, YHWH is righteous still! Let YHWH be true and every man a liar!




__________
15. Bear in mind that the decrees of an Ecumenical Council had no binding force unless they were ratified by the Pope.

16. Two favorite verses for Arians of all ages to cite in support of their beliefs are Proverbs 8:22 and John 14:28.

17. See John Henry Newman, The Arians of the Fourth Century.
 

Dona Bate

New member
All of this has already been answered by Catholics on this forum more than once. Don't bother. :yawn:
Not just here!!! AMR has been boring many others with this same tired old copy and paste spam on many other internet forums for years.

Don't take the bait!

He will of course receive the ultimate answer in good time. Lord have mercy on his poor deluded soul.

:yawn:

God Bless!
 
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